NMCLE Model Questions : NMCLE license exam Nepal

NMCLE Model Questions : NMCLE license exam Nepal part 2

NMCLE Model Questio

Here are 50 multiple choice questions suitable for a medical graduate

1. Which of the following is the primary neurotransmitter involved in the pathophysiology of Alzheimer's disease?

   A) Serotonin

   B) Dopamine

   C) Acetylcholine

   D) GABA

2. Which of the following is the drug of choice for treating acute asthma exacerbations?

   A) Albuterol

   B) Montelukast

   C) Ipratropium

   D) Fluticasone

3. In which part of the nephron does glucose reabsorption primarily occur?

   A) Proximal convoluted tubule

   B) Loop of Henle

   C) Distal convoluted tubule

   D) Collecting duct

4. Which of the following hormones is responsible for the regulation of calcium levels in the blood?

   A) Insulin

   B) Thyroxine

   C) Parathyroid hormone

   D) Aldosterone

5. Which of the following is the most common type of kidney stone?

   A) Uric acid

   B) Calcium oxalate

   C) Cystine

   D) Struvite

6. Which of the following is a characteristic of rheumatoid arthritis?

   A) Presence of HLA-B27 antigen

   B) Symmetric joint involvement

   C) Presence of tophi

   D) Joint deformities with sparing of the small joints

7. Which of the following is a first-line treatment for uncomplicated urinary tract infections?

   A) Ciprofloxacin

   B) Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole

   C) Ampicillin

   D) Metronidazole

8. Which of the following is the most common cause of community-acquired pneumonia?

   A) Streptococcus pneumoniae

   B) Haemophilus influenzae

   C) Legionella pneumophila

   D) Mycoplasma pneumoniae

9. Which of the following is a characteristic of Addison's disease?

   A) Hyperpigmentation

   B) Hypertension

   C) Hypernatremia

   D) Hyperglycemia

10. Which of the following conditions is characterized by a deficiency of von Willebrand factor?

    A) Hemophilia A

    B) Hemophilia B

    C) von Willebrand disease

    D) Factor V Leiden deficiency

11. Which of the following is the most accurate method for confirming the diagnosis of peptic ulcer disease?

    A) Upper gastrointestinal endoscopy

    B) Barium swallow

    C) Serum gastrin levels

    D) Stool antigen test for H. pylori

12. Which of the following is the first-line treatment for acute otitis media in children?

    A) Amoxicillin

    B) Azithromycin

    C) Ceftriaxone

    D) Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole

13. Which of the following is a classic triad of symptoms seen in Parkinson's disease?

    A) Bradykinesia, hyperreflexia, and dystonia

    B) Resting tremor, bradykinesia, and rigidity

    C) Ataxia, nystagmus, and dysarthria

    D) Hyperkinesia, chorea, and athetosis

14. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial management for a patient with status epilepticus?

    A) Intravenous lorazepam

    B) Intramuscular diazepam

    C) Oral phenytoin

    D) Subcutaneous midazolam

15. Which of the following is the primary mechanism of action of aspirin in cardiovascular disease prevention?

    A) Inhibition of platelet aggregation

    B) Decrease in LDL cholesterol levels

    C) Vasodilation of coronary arteries

    D) Enhancement of fibrinolysis

16. Which of the following is a key feature of acute tubular necrosis?

    A) Elevation of serum uric acid levels

    B) Oliguria with muddy brown casts in urine

    C) Hyperkalemia

    D) Hypoalbuminemia

17. Which of the following medications is contraindicated in patients with a sulfa allergy?

    A) Furosemide

    B) Lisinopril

    C) Metoprolol

    D) Amlodipine

18. Which of the following conditions is associated with Cushing's syndrome?

    A) Hypocortisolism

    B) Hypertension

    C) Hyperkalemia

    D) Hypoglycemia

19. Which of the following vaccines is recommended for all adults over 65 years of age?

    A) Varicella

    B) MMR (measles, mumps, rubella)

    C) Pneumococcal polysaccharide

    D) Human papillomavirus (HPV)

20. Which of the following is the most common cause of bacterial meningitis in adults?

    A) Streptococcus pneumoniae

    B) Neisseria meningitidis

    C) Haemophilus influenzae

    D) Listeria monocytogenes

21. Which of the following is a common side effect of statin therapy?

    A) Hyperkalemia

    B) Rhabdomyolysis

    C) Hypoglycemia

    D) Hypertension

22. Which of the following is a characteristic feature of nephrotic syndrome?

    A) Hematuria

    B) Proteinuria >3.5 grams per day

    C) Hypoalbuminemia

    D) Hyperkalemia

23. Which of the following is the primary pharmacological treatment for bipolar disorder?

    A) Sertraline

    B) Lithium

    C) Fluoxetine

    D) Venlafaxine

24. Which of the following conditions is characterized by the presence of anti-glomerular basement membrane antibodies?

    A) Goodpasture syndrome

    B) Wegener's granulomatosis

    C) Henoch-Schönlein purpura

    D) Microscopic polyangiitis

25. Which of the following is the primary treatment for uncomplicated acute appendicitis?

    A) Intravenous antibiotics

    B) Laparoscopic appendectomy

    C) Observation and supportive care

    D) Oral corticosteroids

26. Which of the following is a key feature of type 1 diabetes mellitus?

    A) Insulin resistance

    B) Ketosis-prone state

    C) Obesity

    D) Gradual onset of symptoms

27. Which of the following is a characteristic feature of multiple sclerosis?

    A) Asymmetric motor weakness

    B) Normal cerebrospinal fluid analysis

    C) Improvement of symptoms with exercise

    D) Peripheral neuropathy

28. Which of the following is the most common site for ectopic pregnancy?

    A) Fallopian tube

    B) Ovary

    C) Uterine cervix

    D) Abdominal cavity

29. Which of the following medications is commonly used for the treatment of attention deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD)?

    A) Risperidone

    B) Methylphenidate

    C) Lamotrigine

    D) Fluoxetine

30. Which of the following is a key feature of Kawasaki disease?

    A) Desquamation of the skin of the palms and soles

    B) Target-like lesions on the mucous membranes

    C) Pitting edema of the lower extremities

    D) Oral ulcers

31. Which of the following is the most common cause of chronic kidney disease worldwide?

    A) Diabetic nephropathy

    B) Hypertensive nephrosclerosis

    C) Glomerulonephritis

    D) Polycystic kidney disease

32. Which of the following is a first-line treatment for acute angle-closure glaucoma?

    A) Timolol eye drops

    B) Acetazolamide

    C) Pilocarpine eye drops

    D) Latanoprost eye drops

33. Which of the following is a characteristic feature of preeclampsia?

    A) Hypertension and proteinuria after 20 weeks of gestation

    B) Severe abdominal pain and vaginal bleeding

    C) Absent fetal heart sounds

    D) Excessive fetal movement

34. Which of the following is the primary mechanism of action of methotrexate in the treatment of rheumatoid arthritis?

    A) Inhibition of cyclooxygenase

    B) Suppression of T cell activation

    C) Stimulation of insulin secretion

    D) Enhancement of serotonin reuptake

35. Which of the following is a key feature of acute pancreatitis?

    A) Hypocalcemia

    B) Hypoglycemia

    C) Hypernatremia

    D) Hyperbilirubinemia

36. Which of the following is a common side effect of angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors?

    A) Hyperkalemia

    B) Hypocalcemia

    C) Hypertension

    D) Hyperglycemia

37. Which of the following is the most common risk factor for developing primary open-angle glaucoma?

    A) Myopia

    B) Diabetes mellitus

    C) Hypertension

    D) Age

38. Which of the following is the first-line treatment for anaphylaxis?

    A) Epinephrine

    B) Diphenhydramine

    C) Albuterol

    D) Prednisone

39. Which of the following is the primary mechanism of action of warfarin?

    A) Inhibition of vitamin K epoxide reductase

    B) Inhibition of thromboxane A2 synthesis

    C) Inhibition of platelet aggregation

    D) Enhancement of fibrinolysis

40. Which of the following conditions is associated with an elevated erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) and C-reactive protein (CRP)?

    A) Polycythemia vera

    B) Temporal arteritis

    C) Essential thrombocythemia

    D) Iron deficiency anemia

41. Which of the following is the primary mechanism of action of inhaled corticosteroids in the treatment of asthma?

    A) Inhibition of leukotriene synthesis

    B) Inhibition of mast cell degranulation

    C) Suppression of airway inflammation

    D) Relaxation of bronchial smooth muscle

42. Which of the following is a characteristic feature of Graves' disease?

    A) Low serum T3 and T4 levels

    B) Hypotension

    C) Exophthalmos

    D) Bradycardia

43. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial management for a patient with suspected acute coronary syndrome?

    A) Aspirin and nitroglycerin

    B) Intravenous heparin

    C) Inhaled albuterol

    D) Oral metoprolol

44. Which of the following is the most common cause of bacterial meningitis in neonates?

    A) Group B Streptococcus

    B) Escherichia coli

    C) Listeria monocytogenes

    D) Haemophilus influenzae

45. Which of the following is a key feature of Guillain-Barré syndrome?

    A) Ascending muscle weakness and areflexia

    B) Progressive dementia and ataxia

    C) Fluctuating muscle weakness and fatigability

    D) Sensory loss and autonomic dysfunction

46. Which of the following is the primary mechanism of action of alendronate in the treatment of osteoporosis?

    A) Inhibition of osteoclast activity

    B) Stimulation of osteoblast activity

    C) Inhibition of vitamin D synthesis

    D) Enhancement of calcium absorption

47. Which of the following is a characteristic feature of polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS)?

    A) Hypermenorrhea

    B) Hypogonadism

    C) Hyperglycemia

    D) Multiple ovarian cysts on ultrasound

48. Which of the following is a common side effect of selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs)?

    A) Weight gain

    B) Bradycardia

    C) Hypotension

    D) Sexual dysfunction

49. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial management for a patient with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA)?

    A) Intravenous insulin and fluid replacement

    B) Oral hypoglycemic agents

    C) Intramuscular glucagon

    D) Oral sodium bicarbonate

50. Which of the following is a key feature of acute angle-closure glaucoma?

    A) Gradual onset of symptoms

    B) Blurred vision and halos around lights

    C) Normal intraocular pressure

    D) Improvement of symptoms with mydriatics

Answer Key:

1. C) Acetylcholine

2. A) Albuterol

3. A) Proximal convoluted tubule

4. C) Parathyroid hormone

5. B) Calcium oxalate

6. B) Symmetric joint involvement

7. B) Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole

8. A) Streptococcus pneumoniae

9. A) Hyperpigmentation

10. C) von Willebrand disease

11. A) Upper gastrointestinal endoscopy

12. A) Amoxicillin

13. B) Resting tremor, bradykinesia, and rigidity

14. A) Intravenous lorazepam

15. A) Inhibition of platelet aggregation

16. B) Oliguria with muddy brown casts in urine

17. A) Furosemide

18. B) Hypertension

19. C) Pneumococcal polysaccharide

20. A) Streptococcus pneumoniae

21. B)Rhabdomyolysis

22. B) Proteinuria >3.5 grams per day

23. B) Lithium

24. A) Goodpasture syndrome

25. B) Laparoscopic appendectomy

26. B) Ketosis-prone state

27. A) Asymmetric motor weakness

28. A) Fallopian tube

29. B) Methylphenidate

30. A) Desquamation of the skin of the palms and soles

31. A) Diabetic nephropathy

32. A) Timolol eye drops

33. A) Hypertension and proteinuria after 20 weeks of gestation

34. B) Suppression of T cell activation

35. A) Hypocalcemia

36. A) Hyperkalemia

37. D) Age

38. A) Epinephrine

39. A) Inhibition of vitamin K epoxide reductase

40. B) Temporal arteritis

41. C) Suppression of airway inflammation

42. C) Exophthalmos

43. A) Aspirin and nitroglycerin

44. A) Group B Streptococcus

45. A) Ascending muscle weakness and areflexia

46. A) Inhibition of osteoclast activity

47. D) Multiple ovarian cysts on ultrasound

48. D) Sexual dysfunction

49. A) Intravenous insulin and fluid replacement

50. B) Blurred vision and halos around lights