Year: 2025

PCL Physiotherapy License Exam – Model Questions Set 2

1. Which of the following is the primary function of the rotator cuff muscles?

a) Stabilization of the shoulder joint
b) Flexion of the shoulder
c) Extension of the elbow
d) Supination of the forearm

2. What is the normal range of motion (ROM) for knee flexion?

a) 90°
b) 120°
c) 135°
d) 150°

3. Which nerve is commonly affected in carpal tunnel syndrome?

a) Ulnar nerve
b) Radial nerve
c) Median nerve
d) Musculocutaneous nerve

4. The McMurray test is used to assess which structure in the knee?

a) Anterior cruciate ligament (ACL)
b) Medial collateral ligament (MCL)
c) Meniscus
d) Patellar tendon

5. Which of the following is NOT a contraindication for ultrasound therapy?

a) Over a pregnant uterus
b) Over a metal implant
c) Over open wounds
d) Over a fracture site

6. In which condition is the Trendelenburg sign positive?

a) Plantar fasciitis
b) Hip abductor weakness
c) Ankle sprain
d) Biceps tendon rupture

7. Which gait pattern is commonly seen in patients with Parkinson’s disease?

a) Scissoring gait
b) Ataxic gait
c) Festinating gait
d) Trendelenburg gait

8. What is the primary purpose of proprioceptive neuromuscular facilitation (PNF)?

a) Improve endurance
b) Enhance flexibility and strength
c) Increase cardiovascular fitness
d) Improve bone density

9. Which of the following is an open-chain exercise?

a) Squats
b) Leg press
c) Seated knee extension
d) Push-ups

10. Which muscle is responsible for dorsiflexion of the foot?

a) Tibialis anterior
b) Gastrocnemius
c) Soleus
d) Peroneus longus

11. The Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) is used to assess:

a) Respiratory function
b) Muscle strength
c) Level of consciousness
d) Range of motion

12. What is the primary cause of foot drop?

a) Radial nerve injury
b) Sciatic nerve injury
c) Peroneal nerve injury
d) Femoral nerve injury

13. The main goal of passive range of motion (PROM) exercises is to:

a) Strengthen muscles
b) Improve joint mobility
c) Increase cardiovascular endurance
d) Enhance proprioception

14. Which test is used to assess an Achilles tendon rupture?

a) Lachman test
b) Thompson test
c) Yergason test
d) Finkelstein test

15. Which muscle is the prime mover in elbow flexion?

a) Biceps brachii
b) Triceps brachii
c) Deltoid
d) Brachioradialis

16. Which modality is most effective for reducing acute inflammation?

a) Moist heat
b) Electrical stimulation
c) Ice therapy (cryotherapy)
d) Ultrasound therapy

17. Which spinal nerve root is tested by the patellar reflex?

a) L2-L3
b) L3-L4
c) L4-L5
d) S1-S2

18. What is the primary benefit of aquatic therapy?

a) Increases muscle fatigue
b) Reduces joint stress and enhances mobility
c) Decreases blood circulation
d) Increases joint stiffness

19. Which condition is characterized by lateral curvature of the spine?

a) Kyphosis
b) Lordosis
c) Scoliosis
d) Spinal stenosis

20. Which exercise is best for strengthening the quadriceps muscle?

a) Seated leg curls
b) Standing calf raises
c) Leg extensions
d) Hip abduction

Answer Keys

1. a) Stabilization of the shoulder joint
2. c) 135°
3. c) Median nerve
4. c) Meniscus
5. d) Over a fracture site
6. b) Hip abductor weakness
7. c) Festinating gait
8. b) Enhance flexibility and strength
9. c) Seated knee extension
10. a) Tibialis anterior
11. c) Level of consciousness
12. c) Peroneal nerve injury
13. b) Improve joint mobility
14. b) Thompson test
15. a) Biceps brachii
16. c) Ice therapy (cryotherapy)
17. b) L3-L4
18. b) Reduces joint stress and enhances mobility
19. c) Scoliosis
20. c) Leg extensions

NHPC PCL Physiotherapy License Exam Model Questions Free Practice

1. Which of the following is the primary function of a physiotherapist?

a) Prescribing medications
b) Diagnosing diseases
c) Preventing and treating movement disorders
d) Performing surgeries

2. Which plane divides the body into left and right halves?

a) Coronal plane
b) Transverse plane
c) Sagittal plane
d) Frontal plane

3. The Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) is used to assess:

a) Joint mobility
b) Muscle strength
c) Consciousness level
d) Pain intensity

4. Which of the following is NOT a component of Proprioceptive Neuromuscular Facilitation (PNF)?

a) Rhythmic initiation
b) Alternating isometrics
c) Contract-relax technique
d) Isometric stretching

5. Which nerve is commonly compressed in Carpal Tunnel Syndrome?

a) Ulnar nerve
b) Radial nerve
c) Median nerve
d) Musculocutaneous nerve

6. The primary goal of passive range of motion (PROM) exercises is to:

a) Increase muscle strength
b) Improve joint mobility
c) Enhance cardiovascular endurance
d) Improve proprioception

7. Which of the following is a contraindication for ultrasound therapy?

a) Muscle spasm
b) Joint stiffness
c) Open wounds
d) Chronic pain

8. Which test is used to assess anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) injury?

a) McMurray’s test
b) Lachman’s test
c) Thomas test
d) Ober’s test

9. The term “paresis” refers to:

a) Complete paralysis
b) Partial loss of muscle function
c) Increased muscle tone
d) Involuntary muscle contraction

10. Which of the following is an example of an open-chain exercise?

a) Squats
b) Push-ups
c) Leg extension
d) Lunges

11. Which energy system is primarily used during a 100-meter sprint?

a) Aerobic system
b) Anaerobic glycolysis
c) Phosphagen system
d) Oxidative phosphorylation

12. Which condition is characterized by progressive degeneration of motor neurons?

a) Multiple sclerosis
b) Parkinson’s disease
c) Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS)
d) Guillain-Barré syndrome

13. The Modified Ashworth Scale is used to assess:

a) Pain levels
b) Muscle spasticity
c) Joint instability
d) Coordination

14. Which exercise is recommended for a patient with osteoporosis?

a) Swimming
b) Weight-bearing exercises
c) Prolonged bed rest
d) Passive stretching

15. A patient with hemiplegia from a stroke typically presents with:

a) Weakness in both legs
b) Weakness on one side of the body
c) Decreased deep tendon reflexes bilaterally
d) Bilateral loss of sensation

16. Which of the following is a primary role of the rotator cuff muscles?

a) Knee stabilization
b) Shoulder stabilization
c) Ankle dorsiflexion
d) Wrist flexion

17. Which technique is commonly used to relieve pain in trigger points?

a) Cryotherapy
b) Myofascial release
c) Whirlpool therapy
d) Compression bandaging

18. A Trendelenburg gait is caused by weakness in which muscle?

a) Rectus femoris
b) Tibialis anterior
c) Gluteus medius
d) Gastrocnemius

19. Which modality is most suitable for treating chronic low back pain?

a) Shortwave diathermy
b) Cryotherapy
c) TENS (Transcutaneous Electrical Nerve Stimulation)
d) Hydrotherapy

20. What is the primary purpose of pulmonary rehabilitation in patients with COPD?

a) Increase lung compliance
b) Improve respiratory muscle strength and endurance
c) Reduce airway resistance
d) Completely cure the disease

Answer Keys

1. c) Preventing and treating movement disorders
2. c) Sagittal plane
3. c) Consciousness level
4. d) Isometric stretching
5. c) Median nerve
6. b) Improve joint mobility
7. c) Open wounds
8. b) Lachman’s test
9. b) Partial loss of muscle function
10. c) Leg extension
11. c) Phosphagen system
12. c) Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS)
13. b) Muscle spasticity
14. b) Weight-bearing exercises
15. b) Weakness on one side of the body
16. b) Shoulder stabilization
17. b) Myofascial release
18. c) Gluteus medius
19. c) TENS (Transcutaneous Electrical Nerve Stimulation)
20. b) Improve respiratory muscle strength and endurance

Nepal Pharmacy Council Model Questions With answer and explanation

General Pharmacy and Pharmacology

1. Which of the following is NOT a part of Good Pharmacy Practice (GPP)?
   a) Patient counseling
   b) Ethical dispensing
   c) Unregulated sale of drugs
   d) Pharmacovigilance

2. Which phase of clinical trials determines the therapeutic efficacy of a drug?
   a) Phase I
   b) Phase II
   c) Phase III
   d) Phase IV

3. The primary site of drug metabolism in the body is:
   a) Kidney
   b) Liver
   c) Lungs
   d) Blood

4. The mechanism of action of beta-lactam antibiotics is:
   a) Inhibition of protein synthesis
   b) Inhibition of DNA replication
   c) Inhibition of cell wall synthesis
   d) Inhibition of folic acid synthesis

5. Which of the following is an example of a prodrug?
   a) Paracetamol
   b) Enalapril
   c) Ibuprofen
   d) Ranitidine

Pharmaceutical Chemistry and Analysis

6. The pH of a buffer solution is determined by:
   a) Henderson-Hasselbalch equation
   b) Nernst equation
   c) Arrhenius equation
   d) Michaelis-Menten equation

7. The functional group present in aspirin is:
   a) Amide
   b) Ester
   c) Ketone
   d) Aldehyde

8. The instrument used to measure the optical activity of a compound is:
   a) Spectrophotometer
   b) Polarimeter
   c) Potentiometer
   d) Colorimeter

9. Which of the following techniques is used for the separation of volatile compounds?
   a) High-Performance Liquid Chromatography (HPLC)
   b) Gas Chromatography (GC)
   c) Paper Chromatography
   d) Thin Layer Chromatography (TLC)

10. The Beer-Lambert law is used to determine:
    a) Molecular weight
    b) Concentration of a solution
    c) Melting point
    d) Boiling point

Pharmaceutics and Dosage Forms

11. The bioavailability of a drug is highest when administered via:
    a) Oral route
    b) Intravenous route
    c) Intramuscular route
    d) Subcutaneous route

12. Enteric-coated tablets are designed to:
    a) Release the drug rapidly
    b) Protect the drug from stomach acid
    c) Increase drug solubility
    d) Reduce side effects

13. The major advantage of controlled-release drug formulations is:
    a) Reduced drug potency
    b) Increased frequency of administration
    c) Prolonged drug action
    d) Higher chances of drug toxicity

14. The preservative commonly used in ophthalmic preparations is:
    a) Sodium benzoate
    b) Benzalkonium chloride
    c) Sorbic acid
    d) Propyl gallate

15. The main advantage of transdermal drug delivery systems is:
    a) Immediate drug absorption
    b) Avoidance of first-pass metabolism
    c) Increased renal excretion
    d) Increased systemic toxicity

Pharmacognosy and Natural Products

16. Which of the following alkaloids is derived from Cinchona bark?
    a) Morphine
    b) Quinine
    c) Atropine
    d) Ephedrine

17. Sennosides, used as laxatives, are obtained from:
    a) Digitalis
    b) Senna
    c) Belladonna
    d) Cinchona

18. The main active constituent of opium is:
    a) Caffeine
    b) Theobromine
    c) Morphine
    d) Nicotine

19. The main function of flavonoids in plants is:
    a) Protection against UV radiation
    b) Protein synthesis
    c) Cell wall formation
    d) Energy production

20. Glycyrrhizin, a sweetening agent, is obtained from:
    a) Aloe vera
    b) Liquorice
    c) Cinnamon
    d) Clove

Pharmacy Law and Ethics

21. The governing body for pharmacy professionals in Nepal is:
    a) Nepal Medical Council
    b) Nepal Pharmacy Council
    c) Nepal Drug Administration
    d) World Health Organization

22. The Drug Act of Nepal was enacted in:
    a) 1978
    b) 1980
    c) 1972
    d) 1995

23. The maximum penalty for selling counterfeit drugs in Nepal includes:
    a) Fine only
    b) Imprisonment only
    c) Both fine and imprisonment
    d) Suspension of pharmacy license

24. The legal document required for the retail sale of drugs in Nepal is:
    a) Drug Manufacturing License
    b) Drug Import License
    c) Drug Retail License
    d) Drug Registration Certificate

25. Informed consent is essential in:
    a) Marketing authorization
    b) Clinical trials
    c) Drug dispensing
    d) Pharmacovigilance

Hospital and Clinical Pharmacy

26. The term “therapeutic drug monitoring” refers to:
    a) Measuring drug levels in the blood
    b) Observing patient compliance
    c) Studying drug interactions
    d) Reporting adverse effects

27. The safest category of drugs in pregnancy is:
    a) Category A
    b) Category B
    c) Category C
    d) Category X

28. Which of the following drugs is used as an antidote for organophosphate poisoning?
    a) Naloxone
    b) Atropine
    c) Flumazenil
    d) Vitamin K

29. The primary role of a clinical pharmacist in a hospital setting is to:
    a) Dispense medications
    b) Perform surgeries
    c) Provide drug therapy management
    d) Conduct laboratory tests

30. Adverse Drug Reactions (ADRs) are best monitored through:
    a) Pharmacovigilance programs
    b) Drug marketing surveys
    c) Drug advertisements
    d) Patient self-reports

Answers and explanation

NHPC Optometry License Model Questions 2081

1. Anatomy & Physiology

Which structure is responsible for producing aqueous humor in the eye?

A) Ciliary body

B) Cornea

C) Retina

D) Choroid

2. Refractive Errors

A patient has a prescription of -3.00 D in both eyes. This indicates:

A) Hyperopia

B) Myopia

C) Presbyopia

D) Astigmatism

3. Ocular Pharmacology

Which of the following drugs is commonly used to dilate the pupil for an eye examination?

A) Timolol

B) Pilocarpine

C) Tropicamide

D) Latanoprost

4. Binocular Vision & Strabismus

A child presents with an eye that consistently turns inward. This condition is known as:

A) Exotropia

B) Esotropia

C) Hypertropia

D) Hypotropia

5. Contact Lenses

Which type of contact lens is most suitable for a patient with keratoconus?

A) Soft spherical lens

B) Hybrid lens

C) Conventional hydrogel lens

D) Scleral lens

6. Glaucoma

The primary goal of glaucoma treatment is to:

A) Increase aqueous humor production

B) Improve retinal circulation

C) Reduce intraocular pressure

D) Enhance optic nerve function

7. Retinal Disorders

Which of the following is a characteristic finding in diabetic retinopathy?

A) Drusen

B) Cotton-wool spots

C) Cherry-red spot

D) Pigmentary changes in the macula

8. Ocular Emergencies

A patient presents with sudden painless loss of vision in one eye. The most likely diagnosis is:

A) Retinal detachment

B) Angle-closure glaucoma

C) Central retinal artery occlusion

D) Optic neuritis

9. Optics & Refraction

Which type of lens corrects hyperopia?

A) Concave lens

B) Convex lens

C) Cylindrical lens

D) Prism lens

10. Visual Field Defects

A lesion in the optic chiasm typically causes:

A) Homonymous hemianopia

B) Bitemporal hemianopia

C) Quadrantanopia

D) Central scotoma

Answers:

1. A) Ciliary body

2. B) Myopia

3. C) Tropicamide

4. B) Esotropia

5. D) Scleral lens

6. C) Reduce intraocular pressure

7. B) Cotton-wool spots

8. C) Central retinal artery occlusion

9. B) Convex lens

10. B) Bitemporal hemianopia

Atherosclerotic Cardiovascular Disease (ASCVD) 2025 update

Atherosclerotic Cardiovascular Disease (ASCVD) is a condition caused by the
buildup of plaque in the arteries, leading to heart attacks, strokes, and
other cardiovascular complications. It includes diseases such as coronary
artery disease and cerebrovascular disease. Assessing the risk of ASCVD
helps in early prevention and management.

How is ASCVD Risk Calculated?

The Pooled Cohort Equations (PCE) are used to estimate a person’s 10-year
risk of developing ASCVD. The equation considers multiple risk factors,
including:

• Age

• Gender

• Race (White or African American)

• Total Cholesterol (mg/dL)

• HDL Cholesterol (mg/dL)

• Systolic Blood Pressure (mmHg)

• Hypertension Treatment (Yes/No)

• Diabetes Status (Yes/No)

• Smoking Status (Yes/No)

ASCVD Risk Calculation Formula

The PCE formula involves logarithmic calculations of these risk factors
using specific coefficients for different populations. The general structure
of the formula is:

Risk = 1 – S0^(exp(∑(coefficients × ln(risk factors)) –
mean_coefficient))

Where:

• • S0 = Baseline survival rate
• • exp = Exponential function
• • ln = Natural logarithm
• • ∑(coefficients × ln(risk factors)) = Sum of the coefficients
  multiplied by the natural logarithm of risk factors
• • mean_coefficient = Mean coefficient for the population group

This formula is used in the Pooled Cohort Equations (PCE) to estimate
10-year ASCVD risk.

The risk score is then categorized as:

• • Low Risk: <5%
• • Borderline Risk: 5% – 7.4%
• • Intermediate Risk: 7.5% – 19.9%
• • High Risk: ≥20%

Why is ASCVD Risk Assessment Important?

Identifying individuals with an intermediate or high ASCVD risk allows for
early interventions, such as:

• Lifestyle modifications (diet, exercise, quitting smoking)

• Blood pressure and cholesterol management

• Use of statins and other preventive medications

By using this evidence-based approach, healthcare providers can guide
patients toward healthier choices and reduce the risk of cardiovascular
events.

NNC License Model Question Set (including NNC Past Questions)

1. What is the primary role of the NMC Code?

a) To provide legal advice to nurses

b) To guide professional conduct and ensure patient safety

c) To dictate employment contracts

d) To provide medical diagnoses

2. A nurse notices a colleague making a medication error but not reporting it. What should the nurse do first?

a) Ignore the situation

b) Report it to the nursing manager

c) Confront the colleague in public

d) Correct the error without informing anyone

3. Which of the following is the most effective communication technique with a patient experiencing anxiety?

a) Speaking loudly and clearly

b) Providing written instructions only

c) Using a calm tone and active listening

d) Avoiding eye contact

4. A patient refuses treatment based on religious beliefs. What is the nurse’s best response?

a) Force the patient to accept treatment

b) Inform the doctor and respect the patient’s decision

c) Discharge the patient immediately

d) Persuade the patient aggressively 

5. A nurse is administering digoxin. What must be checked before giving the medication?

a) Respiratory rate

b) Blood pressure

c) Heart rate

d) Oxygen saturation

6. A patient reports an allergy to penicillin. The doctor prescribes amoxicillin. What should the nurse do?

a) Administer the medication as prescribed

b) Inform the doctor about the allergy and seek an alternative

c) Give the first dose and observe for a reaction

d) Ignore the patient’s allergy history

7. What is the most effective way to prevent hospital-acquired infections?

a) Wearing gloves at all times

b) Isolating all patients

c) Proper hand hygiene

d) Wearing an N95 mask

8. When should an alcohol-based hand rub be used instead of soap and water?

a) After contact with a patient’s blood

b) When hands are visibly soiled

c) Before and after touching a patient if hands are not visibly dirty

d) After using the restroom

9. What is the normal range of respiratory rate for an adult?

a) 8-12 breaths per minute

b) 12-20 breaths per minute

c) 22-28 breaths per minute

d) 30-40 breaths per minute

10. A patient suddenly becomes unresponsive. What is the first step a nurse should take?

a) Call for help and assess responsiveness

b) Start chest compressions immediately

c) Give oxygen via a mask

d) Check blood sugar levels

11. What is the best approach when caring for a patient with dementia?

a) Speak slowly and use simple sentences

b) Avoid communicating too much

c) Use medical jargon

d) Leave the patient alone most of the time

12. If a nurse suspects elder abuse, what should they do first?

a) Confront the suspected abuser

b) Report concerns to the safeguarding team

c) Ignore the suspicion

d) Ask the patient’s family for permission to report

13. What is an essential skill for effective delegation?

a) Assigning all tasks to junior staff

b) Ensuring the delegated person is competent

c) Avoiding supervision

d) Only delegating administrative tasks

14. A junior nurse is struggling with a task. What should the senior nurse do?

a) Criticize them in front of others

b) Provide guidance and support

c) Ignore the situation

d) Take over the task without explanation

15. What is the best definition of informed consent?

a) The patient agrees to treatment without needing information

b) The patient signs a form without understanding the procedure

c) The patient receives full information before agreeing to treatment

d) The nurse decides what is best for the patient

16. When can a nurse breach patient confidentiality?

a) When a friend asks for information

b) When the information is needed for legal or safety reasons

c) When the patient is famous

d) When a journalist requests details

17. A patient in shock has cold, clammy skin and a weak pulse. What should the nurse do first?

a) Give oral fluids

b) Elevate the patient’s legs and provide oxygen

c) Wait for the doctor

d) Perform a blood test

18. In a choking emergency, what should a nurse do for a conscious adult who cannot speak?

a) Encourage them to drink water

b) Perform abdominal thrusts (Heimlich maneuver)

c) Wait to see if the object clears on its own

d) Perform CPR immediately

19. A pregnant woman at 32 weeks reports severe headaches and swelling. What condition should the nurse suspect?

a) Gestational diabetes

b) Preeclampsia

c) Anemia

d) Hyperthyroidism

20. What is the best way to assess dehydration in an infant?

a) Checking for sunken fontanelles and reduced urine output

b) Measuring heart rate only

c) Checking if the baby cries loudly

d) Observing skin color

Answers

1. b To guide professional conduct and ensure patient safety

2. b  Report it to the nursing manager

3. c Using a calm tone and active listening

4. b Inform the doctor and respect the patients decision

5. c Heart rate

6. b Inform the doctor about the allergy and seek an alternative

7. c Proper hand hygiene

8. c Before and after touching a patient if hands are not visibly dirty

9. b 12-20 breaths per minute

10. a Call for help and assess responsiveness

11. a Speak slowly and use simple sentences

12. b Report concerns to the safeguarding team

13. b Ensuring the delegated person is competent

14. b Provide guidance and support

15. c The patient receives full information before agreeing to treatment

16. b When the information is needed for legal or safety reasons

17. b Elevate the patient’s legs and provide oxygen

18. b Perform abdominal thrusts (Heimlich maneuver)

19. b Preeclampsia

20. a Checking for sunken fontanelles and reduced urine output

ESR and CRP: The acute phase reactants

Understanding ESR and CRP