MCQ series 4 for PCL level Health exams preparation and study tips 2024

MCQ for medical students and nhpc license examination preparation set: 4

Introduction

Cancer & Lung Disease

1. Most common type of cancer worldwide leading to death is:

   • Lung
   • Breast
   • Thyroid
   • Prostate

2. Most common preventable cause related to lung cancer:

   • Alcohol consumption
   • Pollution
   • Cigarette smoking
   • Red meat consumption

3. Most common variety of bronchial carcinoma:

   • Adenocarcinoma (30%)
   • Small cell (20%)
   • Squamous cell (35%)
   • Large cell (15%)

4. Hoarseness of voice in carcinoma of lung is due to compression of which nerve?

   • Vagus nerve
   • Recurrent laryngeal nerve (left)
   • Glossopharyngeal nerve
   • Hypoglossal nerve

5. A patient with a 3-month history of cough, chest pain, and hemoptysis presents with shortness of breath. X-ray shows a large left-sided effusion, and the fluid appears hemorrhagic. What is the most probable diagnosis?

   • Pleural TB
   • Pulmonary tuberculosis
   • Carcinoma of lung
   • Heart failure

Renal Diseases & Urinary System

6. Nephrotic range proteinuria is defined as:

   • 1 mg in 24 hr

   • 1 g in 24 hr

   • 3 mg in 24 hr

   • 3 g in 24 hr

7. Post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis occurs how long after a streptococcal throat infection?

   • 1-2 weeks
   • 2-4 weeks
   • 6-10 weeks
   • After 3 months

8. Post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis occurs how long after a streptococcal skin infection?

   • 1-2 weeks
   • 2-4 weeks
   • 6-10 weeks
   • After 3 months

9. Which group of Streptococcus is mainly responsible for PSGN?

   • Group A beta-hemolytic
   • Group B beta-hemolytic
   • Alpha-hemolytic streptococcus
   • All of the streptococci

10. Color of urine in nephritic syndrome is:

    • Cola-colored
    • Cloudy
    • Dark yellow
    • White

11. Which feature differentiates nephrotic syndrome from nephritic syndrome?

    • Proteinuria
    • Edema
    • Hypertension
    • Deranged renal function

12. Which class of antihypertensive is antiproteinuric and hence useful in nephritic syndrome?

    • Calcium channel blockers
    • Beta-blockers
    • ACE inhibitors
    • Diuretics

13. Most common cause of nephrotic syndrome is:

    • Minimal change disease (90%)
    • Focal segmental glomerulosclerosis
    • Membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis
    • Membranous nephropathy

14. Which of the following is NOT a classical feature of nephrotic syndrome?

    • Heavy proteinuria
    • Hypoalbuminemia
    • Hypolipidemia
    • Lipiduria

15. Edema in nephrotic syndrome is due to:

    • Increased hydrostatic pressure
    • Decreased oncotic pressure in blood
    • Increased oncotic pressure in interstitial side
    • Inflammation of soft tissue

Urinary System & UTI

16. Average length of female urethra is:

    • 3 cm
    • 4 cm
    • 5 cm
    • 6 cm

17. Why is the incidence of UTI higher in females?

    • They are more immune-compromised
    • Short urethra
    • Presence of variety of bacteria in vulva
    • Lack of hygiene

18. Most common pathogen group causing UTI:

    • Fungus
    • Protozoans
    • Gram-positive bacteria
    • Gram-negative bacteria

19. Most common cause of UTI:

    • E. coli
    • Klebsiella spp
    • Proteus spp
    • Pseudomonas spp

20. Renal angle tenderness is positive in:

    • Nephritic syndrome
    • Pyelonephritis
    • Ureteric calculus
    • Bladder outlet obstruction

21. Antibiotics for UTI should be given for:

    • 15-20 days
    • 3-5 days
    • 8-10 days
    • 7-14 days

22. Most common composition of renal calculus:

    • Oxalate
    • Uric acid
    • Cystine
    • Triple phosphate

23. Staghorn calculus is:

    • Chemical composition of calculus
    • Calculus with spikes
    • A big calculus
    • Large calculus taking the shape of renal pelvis

24. The calculus that can be seen on X-ray (radio-opaque) is:

    • Oxalate
    • Cystine
    • Xanthene
    • Uric acid

Acute Kidney Injury (AKI) & Dialysis

25. Acute kidney injury is diagnosed if:

    • Serum creatinine increases ≥ 0.3 mg/dL from previous value
    • Serum creatinine increases ≥ 50% from baseline
    • Urine output <0.5 ml/kg/hr for >6 hrs
    • All of the above

26. RIFLE criteria is related to:

    • Acute kidney injury
    • Congestive heart failure
    • Stroke
    • Deep venous thrombosis

27. Which drugs are nephrotoxic?

    • NSAIDs
    • Aminoglycosides
    • Radio-opaque IV contrast
    • All of the above

Diabetes & Metabolism

28. Which of the following is NOT a function of insulin?

    • Increases glucose uptake in muscles
    • Increases lipolysis
    • Increases glycogenesis
    • Increases lipogenesis

29. Which of the following is NOT a classical symptom of diabetes mellitus?

    • Polyuria
    • Polydipsia
    • Polyphagia
    • Polymorphism

30. Class II obesity is defined as BMI:

    • 25-30
    • 30-40
    • 30-34.9
    • 35-39.9

31. Common insulin injection sites include all EXCEPT:

    • Periumbilical area
    • Lateral thighs
    • Upper outer arm
    • Flank area

32. Diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) is more common in:

    • Gestational DM
    • Type 1 DM
    • Type 2 DM
    • Same in all

33. Normal fasting blood sugar level is:

    • <70 mg/dL
    • <100 mg/dL
    • <110 mg/dL
    • <126 mg/dL

34. Diagnosis of diabetes mellitus is made if:

    • HbA1c ≥ 6.5%
    • FBS ≥ 126 mg/dL
    • 2-hour postprandial glucose ≥ 200 mg/dL
    • RBS ≥ 200 mg/dL with symptoms of hyperglycemia
    • All of the above

35. Which is the first-line pharmacological treatment for Type 2 Diabetes?

    • Metformin
    • Glimepiride
    • Acarbose
    • Insulin

36. Common side effect of metformin:

• GI upset
• Headache
• Hypotension
• Arrhythmia
  

  Diabetes & Its Complications

  37. Maximum daily dose of metformin is:
  • 1000 mg
  • 1500 mg
  • 2000 mg
  • 2500 mg
  38. Which of the following is NOT true about metformin?
  • It is safe in pregnancy
  • Dose adjustment is needed in case of renal impairment
  • It causes hypoglycemia
  • Diarrhea and nausea are common symptoms
  39. Which is an acute complication of diabetes mellitus?
  • Diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA)
  • Diabetic nephropathy
  • Diabetic retinopathy
  • Diabetic neuropathy
  40. Which of the following is NOT a macrovascular complication of diabetes?
  • Coronary artery disease
  • Peripheral artery disease
  • Cerebrovascular disease
  • Diabetic retinopathy
  41. Normal 2-hour postprandial (PP) blood glucose after ingestion of 75 g of glucose is (mg/dL)?
  • <126
  • <140
  • <180
  • <200
  42. Impaired glucose tolerance is diagnosed when HbA1c is (%):
  • 4.5 – 5.5
  • 5.7 – 6.4
  • 6.5 – 7.0
  • 6.0 – 8.0
  43. Target 2-hour postprandial (PP) blood sugar in type 2 DM patients under treatment should be:
  • <120 mg/dL
  • <140 mg/dL
  • <180 mg/dL
  • <200 mg/dL
  44. Recommended level of exercise for a diabetic patient is:
  • 30 minutes twice daily
  • 60 minutes every day
  • 30 minutes, 6 days a week
  • 4-5 hours once weekly
  45. In the plate model for a diabetic diet, what portion of the plate should be covered by green vegetables and fruits?
  • One-third
  • Half
  • Two-thirds
  • Three-fourths
  46. What percentage of total calorie intake should come from carbohydrates in a diabetic patient’s diet?
  • <30%
  • <50%
  • 40-60%
  • 60-80%
  47. Eye examination should be done in diabetic patients every:
  • 3 months
  • 6 months
  • Every 5 years
  • Annually
  48. Target blood pressure for diabetic patients is:
  • <110/70 mmHg
  • <120/70 mmHg
  • <130/80 mmHg
  • <140/90 mmHg

  ---

  Endocrinology & Insulin Therapy

  49. Route of administration of insulin is:
  • Intravenous (IV)
  • Subcutaneous (SC)
  • Intramuscular (IM)
  • Both a and b
  50. Common age of onset of Type 1 Diabetes is:
  • 10-25 years
  • 25-40 years

  • 40 years

  • <10 years
  51. Diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) is characterized by:
  • Hyperglycemia
  • Metabolic acidosis
  • Ketosis
  • All of the above
  52. Which of the following is NOT a common insulin injection site?
  • Periumbilical area
  • Lateral thighs
  • Upper outer arm
  • Flank area
  53. Which of the following is NOT a function of insulin?
  • Increase glucose uptake in muscles
  • Increase lipolysis
  • Increase glycogenesis
  • Increase lipogenesis
  54. Which of the following is NOT a classical symptom of Diabetes mellitus?
  • Polyuria
  • Polydipsia
  • Polyphagia
  • Polymorphism

  ---

  Dialysis & Kidney Failure

  55. Which of the following is NOT an indication for dialysis?
  • Persistent hyperkalemia
  • Dysnatremia
  • Severe metabolic acidosis
  • Pulmonary edema
  • Uremic encephalopathy
  56. Peritoneal dialysis is superior to hemodialysis in:
  • Easy to perform
  • No expensive equipment needed
  • Easy to perform even in neonates
  • Less expensive
  • All of the above
  57. Which of the following is NOT a cause of prerenal acute kidney injury (AKI)?
  • Hypovolemia
  • Congestive cardiac failure (CCF)
  • Diuretics
  • Bladder calculus
  58. RIFLE criteria is used for assessing:
  • Acute kidney injury
  • Congestive heart failure
  • Stroke
  • Deep venous thrombosis
  59. Which of the following drugs are nephrotoxic?
  • NSAIDs
  • Aminoglycosides
  • Radio-opaque IV contrast
  • All of the above

  ---

  Obesity & Metabolic Syndrome

  60. Class II obesity is defined as BMI:
  • 25-30
  • 30-40
  • 30-34.9
  • 35-39.9
  61. Which of the following is the first-line pharmacological management of Type 2 Diabetes?
  • Metformin
  • Glimepiride
  • Acarbose
  • Insulin
  62. Common side effect of metformin is:
  • Gastrointestinal (GI) upset
  • Headache
  • Hypotension
  • Arrhythmia
  63. Which of the following is NOT a macrovascular complication of diabetes?
  • Coronary artery disease
  • Peripheral artery disease
  • Cerebrovascular disease
  • Diabetic retinopathy