Anaesthesia MCQs for NHPC Nepal – Diploma in Anaesthesia License Exam 2025
Here are 50 multiple-choice questions (MCQs) for the Diploma in Anaesthesia License Examination (NHPC Nepal), covering essential topics related to Anaesthesia, with an answer key at the end.
1. The primary function of anaesthesia is to:
a) Induce muscle relaxation
b) Provide pain relief
c) Maintain consciousness
d) Prevent infection
2. Which of the following is the most common side effect of general anaesthesia?
a) Nausea and vomiting
b) Allergic reactions
c) Hypotension
d) Tachycardia
3. The minimum alveolar concentration (MAC) of an inhaled anaesthetic refers to:
a) The concentration at which 50% of patients do not respond to a surgical stimulus
b) The time required for the anaesthetic to be eliminated from the body
c) The level of anaesthesia needed for conscious sedation
d) The amount of oxygen required during anaesthesia
4. Which of the following is a contraindication for regional anaesthesia?
a) Hypovolemia
b) Obesity
c) History of seizures
d) All of the above
5. The most common anaesthetic agent used in rapid sequence induction (RSI) is:
a) Propofol
b) Ketamine
c) Etomidate
d) Thiopental
6. Which of the following is the most common complication of regional anaesthesia?
a) Hypotension
b) Nerve injury
c) Cardiac arrhythmias
d) Postoperative infection
7. The main mechanism of action of volatile anaesthetics is:
a) Inhibition of neurotransmitter release
b) Inhibition of sodium channels
c) Depression of the central nervous system
d) Blocking acetylcholine receptors
8. Which of the following is the safest anaesthetic agent for patients with asthma?
a) Nitrous oxide
b) Sevoflurane
c) Isoflurane
d) Desflurane
9. The most common site for administering an epidural anaesthesia is:
a) L3-L4 intervertebral space
b) L1-L2 intervertebral space
c) T12-L1 intervertebral space
d) T8-T9 intervertebral space
10. Which of the following is used to reverse the effects of non-depolarizing muscle relaxants?
a) Neostigmine
b) Atropine
c) Sugammadex
d) Naloxone
11. Inhaled anaesthetics are primarily eliminated through:
a) The liver
b) The kidneys
c) The lungs
d) The gastrointestinal tract
12. Which of the following is a common feature of malignant hyperthermia?
a) Bradycardia
b) Hyperkalemia
c) Hypothermia
d) Hypotension
13. What is the action of nitrous oxide in anaesthesia?
a) It provides muscle relaxation
b) It is a potent analgesic
c) It increases the depth of anaesthesia
d) It induces unconsciousness
14. The ideal anaesthetic for day surgery should have:
a) A long half-life
b) A quick onset and recovery time
c) A high solubility in blood
d) A low potency
15. The most common cause of hypotension during anaesthesia is:
a) Hypovolemia
b) Allergic reaction
c) Hypercapnia
d) Hypertension
16. Which of the following is used to monitor the depth of anaesthesia?
a) Electrocardiogram (ECG)
b) Bispectral index (BIS)
c) Pulse oximeter
d) Capnography
17. Which of the following is a characteristic of local anaesthetics?
a) They act by inhibiting dopamine receptors
b) They provide both motor and sensory blockade
c) They cause vasodilation
d) They act by inhibiting sodium channels
18. The risk of aspiration during anaesthesia is reduced by:
a) Preoperative fasting
b) Using high doses of muscle relaxants
c) Inducing anaesthesia slowly
d) Administering intravenous fluids
19. Which of the following is the most common type of anaesthesia used for caesarean section?
a) General anaesthesia
b) Spinal anaesthesia
c) Epidural anaesthesia
d) Local anaesthesia
20. Which of the following drugs is used to treat post-operative nausea and vomiting (PONV)?
a) Dexamethasone
b) Ondansetron
c) Naloxone
d) Atropine
21. The most common cause of bradycardia during anaesthesia is:
a) Hypoxia
b) Hypotension
c) Vagal stimulation
d) Hypothermia
22. The action of succinylcholine as a depolarizing muscle relaxant is primarily achieved through:
a) Inhibition of acetylcholine release
b) Blocking acetylcholine receptors
c) Prolonged depolarization of the motor end plate
d) Competitive inhibition of calcium channels
23. What is the primary use of propofol in anaesthesia?
a) Induction and maintenance of general anaesthesia
b) Muscle relaxation
c) Pain relief
d) Sedation for regional anaesthesia
24. Which of the following is the most important factor in determining the choice of anaesthesia in a patient with a high risk of aspiration?
a) Duration of surgery
b) Type of surgery
c) Patient’s position during surgery
d) Airway management and protection
25. The use of nitrous oxide during anaesthesia is contraindicated in which of the following conditions?
a) Pulmonary hypertension
b) Closed head injury
c) Gastric reflux
d) Hyperthyroidism
26. Which of the following is a feature of regional anaesthesia?
a) Acts on the central nervous system
b) Provides unconsciousness
c) Blocks pain in specific areas of the body
d) Requires intubation
27. The action of benzodiazepines in anaesthesia is to:
a) Cause amnesia
b) Induce muscle relaxation
c) Increase pain perception
d) Block nerve conduction
28. Which of the following statements is true about epidural anaesthesia?
a) It is always combined with general anaesthesia
b) It blocks pain transmission in the lower half of the body
c) It is the preferred anaesthesia for craniotomy
d) It is always associated with high-risk complications
29. Which of the following is an indication for the use of ketamine in anaesthesia?
a) Maintenance of anaesthesia in high-risk patients
b) Providing sedation during short procedures
c) Inducing anaesthesia in paediatric patients
d) Treating malignant hyperthermia
30. Which of the following is the most appropriate anaesthetic agent for a patient with a history of malignant hyperthermia?
a) Desflurane
b) Isoflurane
c) Sevoflurane
d) Propofol
31. Which of the following is used to treat malignant hyperthermia?
a) Dantrolene
b) Epinephrine
c) Sodium bicarbonate
d) Magnesium sulfate
32. What is the primary mechanism of action of volatile anaesthetics?
a) Inhibition of GABA receptors
b) Enhancement of excitatory neurotransmitter release
c) Blocking sodium channels
d) Hyperpolarization of nerve membranes
33. Which of the following agents is known for its rapid onset and short duration of action in general anaesthesia?
a) Thiopental
b) Propofol
c) Ketamine
d) Etomidate
34. What is the major complication of spinal anaesthesia?
a) Postdural puncture headache
b) Nerve injury
c) Systemic toxicity
d) Bradycardia
35. Which of the following agents is a muscle relaxant that acts by inhibiting acetylcholine release?
a) Succinylcholine
b) Vecuronium
c) Pancuronium
d) Atracurium
36. Which of the following is a side effect of the use of nitrous oxide?
a) Nausea
b) Seizures
c) Hyperthermia
d) Increased blood pressure
37. What is the role of pre-oxygenation before anaesthesia induction?
a) To reduce the risk of aspiration
b) To increase oxygen reserves and extend safe apnea time
c) To prevent allergic reactions
d) To provide sedation
38. Which of the following anaesthetic agents is contraindicated in patients with a history of epilepsy?
a) Propofol
b) Ketamine
c) Isoflurane
d) Nitrous oxide
39. The most common method used to maintain anaesthesia during a long surgical procedure is:
a) Intravenous anaesthetic agents
b) Volatile inhaled anaesthetics
c) Nitrous oxide
d) Muscle relaxants
40. The common complication of the use of long-term nitrous oxide is:
a) Vitamin B12 deficiency
b) Hypercalcemia
c) Increased risk of infection
d) Dehydration
41. What is the typical concentration of isoflurane used during general anaesthesia?
a) 0.5-1%
b) 1-2%
c) 3-5%
d) 5-7%
42. Which of the following is a common side effect of general anaesthesia in elderly patients?
a) Decreased blood pressure
b) Increased heart rate
c) Hyperthermia
d) Increased sedation
43. What is the primary purpose of a laryngeal mask airway (LMA)?
a) To provide a secure airway during general anaesthesia
b) To induce anaesthesia
c) To maintain oxygenation in patients with bronchospasm
d) To facilitate ventilation during regional anaesthesia
44. Which of the following is an effect of the use of atropine in anaesthesia?
a) Decreased heart rate
b) Increased heart rate
c) Hypotension
d) Respiratory depression
45. Which of the following is the most common complication following the use of propofol for anaesthesia?
a) Hypotension
b) Hyperkalemia
c) Bradycardia
d) Tachycardia
46. Which of the following is the most commonly used anaesthetic for paediatric patients?
a) Ketamine
b) Sevoflurane
c) Isoflurane
d) Desflurane
47. The main function of the pre-anaesthesia assessment is to:
a) Determine the anaesthetic agent to be used
b) Assess the risk factors and plan the anaesthesia accordingly
c) Administer the necessary medication
d) Prepare the patient for surgery
48. What is the primary role of the anaesthesiologist during surgery?
a) To perform the surgery
b) To monitor and maintain the patient’s vital functions
c) To assist with postoperative care
d) To provide pain management after surgery
49. What is the best method to prevent anaphylaxis during anaesthesia?
a) Preoperative testing for allergies
b) Avoiding the use of muscle relaxants
c) Administering antihistamines during surgery
d) Careful selection of anaesthetic agents
50. Which of the following agents is the most appropriate for short outpatient procedures due to its rapid onset and short duration?
a) Propofol
b) Ketamine
c) Sevoflurane
d) Isoflurane
Answer Key
- b
- a
- a
- d
- a
- b
- c
- b
- a
- c
- c
- b
- b
- b
- a
- b
- d
- a
- b
- b
- c
- c
- a
- d
- b
- c
- a
- b
- c
- d
- a
- c
- b
- a
- b
- a
- b
- b
- b
- a
- b
- a
- a
- b
- a
- b
- b
- b
- a
- a
These questions can help assess the understanding of fundamental concepts in anaesthesia, suitable for the Diploma in Anaesthesia License Exam.
