MBBS third year medicine AIIMS Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs)
Q1. A patient who is being screened for vitamin B-12 deficiency undergoes a Schilling test. In this test, 1 mg of cobalamin is administered intramuscularly 1 hour after the administration of radiolabeled cobalamin. A normal Schilling test (excretion of 10% of the labeled cobalamin in a 24-hour urine specimen) would most likely be seen in which of the following situations?
- (a) Intrinsic factor deficiency
- (b) Chronic pancreatitis
- (c) Surgically absent terminal ileum
- (d) Celiac sprue
Q2. HIV infects cells bearing the CD4 receptor. Which co-receptor is required for HIV to enter the cell?
- (a) CD5
- (b) Chemokine receptor 5 (CCR5)
- (c) Major histocompatibility complex receptor (MHC)
- (d) CD3
Q3. Which of the following is a symptom of acute kidney injury?
- (a) Increased urine output
- (b) Decreased urine output
- (c) Hypertension
- (d) Proteinuria
Q4. Weight loss and malabsorption are commonly seen as features of which of the following conditions?
- (a) Lactose intolerance
- (b) Pernicious anemia
- (c) Lymphocytic colitis
- (d) Small bowel bacterial overgrowth
Q5. Dengue hemorrhagic fever is considered if all the following are present except:
- (a) Systolic blood pressure < 90 mm Hg
- (b) Fever (acute onset of 2–7 days)
- (c) Hemorrhagic manifestations
- (d) Platelet count ≤ 100,000/cu.mm
Q6. An 80-year-old male complains of a 3-day history of a painful rash extending over the left half of his forehead and down to his left eyelid. Physical examination reveals weeping vesicular lesions. What is the most likely diagnosis?
- (a) Impetigo
- (b) Adult chickenpox
- (c) Shingles
- (d) Herpes simplex
Q7. A 25-year-old patient presents with flank pain and fever. What is the most likely diagnosis?
- (a) Acute pyelonephritis
- (b) Renal tuberculosis
- (c) Transitional cell carcinoma
- (d) Pelvic inflammatory disease
Q8. According to Truelove and Witts’ classification, which of the following suggests severe ulcerative colitis?
- (a) >10 bloody stools/day
- (b) Pulse 84/min
- (c) Hemoglobin 10.6 g/dL
- (d) ESR 19 mm in 1 hour
Q9. Regarding pleural effusions, which of the following statements is true?
- (a) A 500 mL pleural effusion is generally easy to detect
- (b) A protein level of <30 g/L suggests an exudate
- (c) In infections, a pleural fluid pH of 7.2 suggests the need for drainage
- (d) Pleural effusions occur more commonly on the left
Q10. Which of the following is not a laboratory indicator of iron deficiency anemia?
- (a) Microcytic red blood cells
- (b) A low serum ferritin
- (c) A low serum TIBC
- (d) A low serum iron
Q11. Which of the following is a cause of bilateral spastic paraparesis?
- (a) Vitamin B12 deficiency
- (b) Cerebellar disease
- (c) Peripheral neuropathy
- (d) Stroke in the internal capsule
Q12. Which one of the following statements about paracetamol poisoning is not true?
- (a) Fifteen tablets may be a fatal overdose
- (b) Oral methionine may be a useful treatment
- (c) Paracetamol levels should be checked 4 hours post-ingestion
- (d) If liver function tests are normal at 4 hours post-ingestion, the liver has not been damaged
Q13. Hyponatremia is defined as a plasma sodium concentration of:
- (a) <115 mmol/L
- (b) <125 mmol/L
- (c) <135 mmol/L
- (d) <145 mmol/L
Q14. Which of the following is a cause of direct hyperbilirubinemia?
- (a) Crigler-Najjar syndrome
- (b) Gilbert syndrome
- (c) G6PD deficiency
- (d) Dubin-Johnson syndrome
Q15. Management of delirium includes:
- (a) Neuroleptics
- (b) Atypical neuroleptics
- (c) Both can be used
- (d) None of the above
Q16. Regarding the SPIKES protocol, which of the following is correct?
- (a) It includes elements of breaking bad news
- (b) It involves mentally preparing to interact with the patient and family
- (c) It emphasizes providing information sensitively
- (d) All of the above
Q17. Evidence-based medicine involves:
- (a) Formulating the management question
- (b) Searching literature and databases for research
- (c) Applying gathered knowledge for the best possible outcome
- (d) All of the above
Q18. Regarding the patient-physician relationship, which statement is true?
- (a) Patients are individuals with problems that present as physical complaints
- (b) Most patients are anxious and fearful
- (c) A professional attitude with warmth and openness helps alleviate patient anxiety
- (d) All of the above
Q19. Which of the following diseases is associated with gross hematuria?
- (a) Subacute bacterial endocarditis
- (b) Cystic kidney disease
- (c) Mesangioproliferative glomerulonephritis
- (d) IgA nephropathy
Q20. Which of the following is an appetite-regulating hormone?
- (a) Amylin
- (b) Ghrelin
- (c) GLP-1
- (d) Secretin
Here are the answer keys for the multiple-choice questions:
Answer Key:
- (b) Chronic pancreatitis
- (b) Chemokine receptor 5 (CCR5)
- (b) Decreased urine output
- (d) Small bowel bacterial overgrowth
- (a) Systolic Blood Pressure < 90 mm Hg
- (c) Shingles
- (a) Acute pyelonephritis
- (a) >10 bloody stools/day
- (c) In infections, a pleural fluid pH of 7.2 suggests the need for drainage
- (c) A low serum TIBC
- (d) Stroke in the internal capsule
- (d) If liver function tests are normal at 4 hours post-ingestion, the liver has not been damaged
- (c) <135 mmol/L
- (d) Dubin-Johnson syndrome
- (c) Both can be used
- (d) All of the above
- (d) All of the above
- (d) All of the above
- (d) IgA nephropathy
- (b) Ghrelin
