MBBS third year medicine MCQs AIIMS (old Questions)

MBBS third year medicine AIIMS Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs)


Table of Contents(toc)

Q1. A patient who is being screened for vitamin B-12 deficiency undergoes a Schilling test. In this test, 1 mg of cobalamin is administered intramuscularly 1 hour after the administration of radiolabeled cobalamin. A normal Schilling test (excretion of 10% of the labeled cobalamin in a 24-hour urine specimen) would most likely be seen in which of the following situations?

  • (a) Intrinsic factor deficiency
  • (b) Chronic pancreatitis
  • (c) Surgically absent terminal ileum
  • (d) Celiac sprue

Q2. HIV infects cells bearing the CD4 receptor. Which co-receptor is required for HIV to enter the cell?

  • (a) CD5
  • (b) Chemokine receptor 5 (CCR5)
  • (c) Major histocompatibility complex receptor (MHC)
  • (d) CD3

Q3. Which of the following is a symptom of acute kidney injury?

  • (a) Increased urine output
  • (b) Decreased urine output
  • (c) Hypertension
  • (d) Proteinuria

Q4. Weight loss and malabsorption are commonly seen as features of which of the following conditions?

  • (a) Lactose intolerance
  • (b) Pernicious anemia
  • (c) Lymphocytic colitis
  • (d) Small bowel bacterial overgrowth

Q5. Dengue hemorrhagic fever is considered if all the following are present except:

  • (a) Systolic blood pressure < 90 mm Hg
  • (b) Fever (acute onset of 2–7 days)
  • (c) Hemorrhagic manifestations
  • (d) Platelet count ≤ 100,000/cu.mm

Q6. An 80-year-old male complains of a 3-day history of a painful rash extending over the left half of his forehead and down to his left eyelid. Physical examination reveals weeping vesicular lesions. What is the most likely diagnosis?

  • (a) Impetigo
  • (b) Adult chickenpox
  • (c) Shingles
  • (d) Herpes simplex

Q7. A 25-year-old patient presents with flank pain and fever. What is the most likely diagnosis?

  • (a) Acute pyelonephritis
  • (b) Renal tuberculosis
  • (c) Transitional cell carcinoma
  • (d) Pelvic inflammatory disease

Q8. According to Truelove and Witts’ classification, which of the following suggests severe ulcerative colitis?

  • (a) >10 bloody stools/day
  • (b) Pulse 84/min
  • (c) Hemoglobin 10.6 g/dL
  • (d) ESR 19 mm in 1 hour

Q9. Regarding pleural effusions, which of the following statements is true?

  • (a) A 500 mL pleural effusion is generally easy to detect
  • (b) A protein level of <30 g/L suggests an exudate
  • (c) In infections, a pleural fluid pH of 7.2 suggests the need for drainage
  • (d) Pleural effusions occur more commonly on the left

Q10. Which of the following is not a laboratory indicator of iron deficiency anemia?

  • (a) Microcytic red blood cells
  • (b) A low serum ferritin
  • (c) A low serum TIBC
  • (d) A low serum iron

Q11. Which of the following is a cause of bilateral spastic paraparesis?

  • (a) Vitamin B12 deficiency
  • (b) Cerebellar disease
  • (c) Peripheral neuropathy
  • (d) Stroke in the internal capsule

Q12. Which one of the following statements about paracetamol poisoning is not true?

  • (a) Fifteen tablets may be a fatal overdose
  • (b) Oral methionine may be a useful treatment
  • (c) Paracetamol levels should be checked 4 hours post-ingestion
  • (d) If liver function tests are normal at 4 hours post-ingestion, the liver has not been damaged

Q13. Hyponatremia is defined as a plasma sodium concentration of:

  • (a) <115 mmol/L
  • (b) <125 mmol/L
  • (c) <135 mmol/L
  • (d) <145 mmol/L

Q14. Which of the following is a cause of direct hyperbilirubinemia?

  • (a) Crigler-Najjar syndrome
  • (b) Gilbert syndrome
  • (c) G6PD deficiency
  • (d) Dubin-Johnson syndrome

Q15. Management of delirium includes:

  • (a) Neuroleptics
  • (b) Atypical neuroleptics
  • (c) Both can be used
  • (d) None of the above

Q16. Regarding the SPIKES protocol, which of the following is correct?

  • (a) It includes elements of breaking bad news
  • (b) It involves mentally preparing to interact with the patient and family
  • (c) It emphasizes providing information sensitively
  • (d) All of the above

Q17. Evidence-based medicine involves:

  • (a) Formulating the management question
  • (b) Searching literature and databases for research
  • (c) Applying gathered knowledge for the best possible outcome
  • (d) All of the above

Q18. Regarding the patient-physician relationship, which statement is true?

  • (a) Patients are individuals with problems that present as physical complaints
  • (b) Most patients are anxious and fearful
  • (c) A professional attitude with warmth and openness helps alleviate patient anxiety
  • (d) All of the above

Q19. Which of the following diseases is associated with gross hematuria?

  • (a) Subacute bacterial endocarditis
  • (b) Cystic kidney disease
  • (c) Mesangioproliferative glomerulonephritis
  • (d) IgA nephropathy

Q20. Which of the following is an appetite-regulating hormone?

  • (a) Amylin
  • (b) Ghrelin
  • (c) GLP-1
  • (d) Secretin

Here are the answer keys for the multiple-choice questions:

Answer Key:

  1. (b) Chronic pancreatitis
  2. (b) Chemokine receptor 5 (CCR5)
  3. (b) Decreased urine output
  4. (d) Small bowel bacterial overgrowth
  5. (a) Systolic Blood Pressure < 90 mm Hg
  6. (c) Shingles
  7. (a) Acute pyelonephritis
  8. (a) >10 bloody stools/day
  9. (c) In infections, a pleural fluid pH of 7.2 suggests the need for drainage
  10. (c) A low serum TIBC
  11. (d) Stroke in the internal capsule
  12. (d) If liver function tests are normal at 4 hours post-ingestion, the liver has not been damaged
  13. (c) <135 mmol/L
  14. (d) Dubin-Johnson syndrome
  15. (c) Both can be used
  16. (d) All of the above
  17. (d) All of the above
  18. (d) All of the above
  19. (d) IgA nephropathy
  20. (b) Ghrelin

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