Month: March 2025

Pediatric Pneumonia Danger Signs (Mnemonics)

1. 

   
   How many bones are there in human vertebra?

   • 25

   • 64

   • 33

   • 80

2. Which of the following chamber of heart pumps oxygenated blood towards the aorta?

   • Right atrium

   • Right ventricle

   • Left atrium

   • Left ventricle

3. The normal WBC count is……..

   • 4000-11000

   • 400000-900000

   • 150000-400000

   • 4.5-6.5 *10^6

4. The process of blood cells formation is called……..

   • Thrombocytosis

   • Leucocytosis

   • Erythropoiesis

   • Hemolysis

5. The normal intake of water per day is………

   • 1000ml

   • 2000ml

   • 1500ml

   • 2500ml

6. Which type of drug is mebendazole?

   • Antifungal

   • Antihelminitic

   • Antibactericidal

   • Antiviral

7. The safest route for injection is……..

   • Intravenous

   • Intraperitoneal

   • Intrapleural

   • Intracardinal

8. What is the pressure of vitreous humor in eyes?

   • 5-10 mm of Hg

   • 15-20 mm of Hg

   • 10-15 mm of Hg

   • 20-25 mm of Hg

9. The most important electrolyte of intracellular fluid is…….

   • Sodium

   • Calcium

   • Potassium

   • Chloride

10. The beta cell of islets of Langerhans secretes………hormone.

    • Glucagon

    • Glycogen

    • Insulin

    • Amylase

11. A patient is scheduled for a urinary catheterization, in which position should the nurse place the patient…….

    • Dorsal recumbent position

    • Supine position

    • Trendelenburg position

    • Prone position

12. Tachycardia means pulse rate……….

    • Below 60

    • Above 100

    • Below 100

    • Above 60

13. A patient is scheduled for NG feeding. In which position should the nurse place the patient……..

    • Low Fowler’s position

    • Trendelenburg

    • Supine position

    • Side lying position

14. The fastest route to give medicine is………

    • IV (intravenous)

    • ID (intradermal)

    • IM (intramuscular)

    • SC (subcutaneous)

15. Nosocomial infection is the infection acquired by………

    • Infected person

    • Community

    • Hospital

    • None of the above

16. Nepal Nursing Council was established in……

    • 193 BS

    • 2053 BS

    • 1954 BS

    • 2054 BS

17. A nurse administers an intravenous solution of 0.45 sodium chloride. With respect to human blood cell, to which category of fluid does this solution belong?

    • Isotonic

    • Hypotonic

    • Isometric

    • Hypertonic

18. A patient is to have gastric gavage. In which position should the nurse place the client when the gavage tube is being inserted…………

    • Supine position

    • High-Fowler’s position

    • Mid-Fowler’s position

    • Trendelenburg position

19. Which electrolyte of intracellular fluid is the most important?

    • Sodium chloride

    • Chloride

    • Calcium

    • Potassium

20. Sterile urine specimen is collected from…………

    • From clean bedpan or urinal

    • The first small amount of urine voided

    • Urine voided at midstream

    • All of the above

21. A patient is having dyspnea. To facilitate respiration, the nurse would….

    • Remove pillow from under the head

    • Elevate the head of the body

    • Elevate the foot of the body

    • Take the blood pressure

22. A patient has an abnormal, unexpected response to a drug this is defined as…….

    • Drug tolerance

    • A cumulative effect

    • Idiosyncratic effect

    • Anaphylactic

23. You are to administer a medication using a nasogastric tube. Before giving medicine, you should…….

    • Crush the enteric coated pill for mixing in a liquid

    • Flush open the tube with 60ml of very warm water

    • Check for proper placement of NG tube

    • Take the patient’s vital sign

24. Vitamin K, 10mg given IM, is ordered vitamin K is available as 5mg/ml. how much would the nurse administers?

    • 1 ml

    • 2 ml

    • 3 ml

    • 4 ml

25. While administering a blood transfusion, when would the nurse assess the patient for a blood transfusion reaction?

    • Every 15 minutes after the infusion is started

    • After the blood is all infused

    • Every hour

    • Every 15 minutes

26. When assessing a patient at risk for pressure ulcer formation, which site would the nurse identify as being most common?

    • Occipital area

    • Sacrum

    • Sternum

    • Humerus

27. A patient is receiving 100ml of IV fluid per 24 hours. Using an IV set with drop rate of 15 drops/ml the nurse should plan to regulate the IV is………

    • 10 drops/min

    • 15 drops/min

    • 20 drops/min

    • 30 drops/min

28. The identification of client’s health needs occurs in nursing process step of………..

    • Planning

    • Evaluation

    • Assessment

    • Implementation

29. Oxygen, Food and water are which of the following need according to Maslow’s hierarchy of human needs……

    • Physiological needs

    • Safety and security need

    • Love and belonging

    • Self esteem

30. When you find a person lying on the ground with a cardiopulmonary arrest, what will be the immediate action to be taken?

    • Assess responsiveness

    • Assess the airway

    • Assess circulation

    • Assess breathing

31. ICN (International Council of Nurses) was established in………

    • 1899 A.D

    • 1888 A.D

    • 1898 A.D

    • 1889 A.D

32. NLEN (National Licensure Examination for Nurses) is conducted by………

    • NNC

    • ICN

    • NAN

    • INC

33. If heat is transferred from one object to another by direct contact, it is……

    • Convection

    • Conduction

    • Evaporation

    • Radiation

34. When the elevated temperature fluctuates wildly but does not reach normal levels between fluctuation is called………

    • Constant fever

    • Remittent fever

    • Intermittent fever

    • Relapsing fever

35. Type of abnormal breathing which is the combination of hyperpnea and apnea………

    • Dyspnea

    • Orthopnea

    • Cheyne-Stokes breathing

    • Asphyxia

36. A client has temperature 104⁰F. This temperature is equal to……………

    • 38⁰C

    • 40⁰C

    • 41⁰C

    • 42⁰C

37. A patient is receiving blood transfusion, if an allergic reaction to the blood develops on patient, the nurse’s first intervention should be…….

    • Call the physician

    • Stop the blood immediately

    • Slow the flow rate of blood

    • Administer anti-allergic drug

38. Which is the unfavorable factor affecting wound healing?

    • Young age

    • Hemorrhage

    • Intake of protein, calcium, vitamin C

    • Blood supply to the injured part

39. For safe administration of drugs, the nurse should follow right …

    • 4 rights

    • 5 rights

    • 6 rights

    • 10 rights

40. For safe administration of drugs, the nurse should follow right …

    • Gluteus medius

    • Deltoid muscle

    • Gluteus minimus

    • Vastus lateralis

41. The process which makes inanimate objects safer to be handled by health personnel before cleaning is………….

    • Sterilization

    • High level disinfection

    • Decontamination

    • Cleaning

42. Recommended temperature, time pressure for autoclaving (steam under pressure)

    • 120⁰C (250⁰F), at 106kpa (15 Ibs/in 2) for 30 minutes

    • 110⁰C at 106 kpa (15 Ibs/in 2) for 30 minutes

    • 100⁰C at 106 kpa (15 Ibs/in 2) for 30 minutes

    • 90⁰C 106 kpa (15 Ibs/in 2) for 30 minutes

43. If nurse is administering a cleansing enema to a client enema to a client with a fecal impaction. Before administering the enema the nurse places the client in which position?

    • Left Sims position

    • Right Sims position

    • On the left side of the body, with the head of the bed elevated at 45 degree

    • None

44. Who will be third line manager for you at PHC?

    • Self

    • Medical superintendent

    • Medical officer

    • Chief of T/OH

45. A nurse is preparing to insert a nasogastric tube in an adult client. To determine the measurements of the length of the tube to be inserted, the nurse should………..

    • Mark the tube at 10 inches

    • Mark the tube at 32 inches

    • Place the tube at the tip of the nose and measures by extending the tube to the earlobe and then down to the xiphoid process

    • Place the tube at the tip of the nose and measure by extending the tube earlobe and then down to the sternum

46. Physician prescribed a hypotonic solution (IV) for a client. Which of the following IV solutions would the nurse except to prescribe………

    • 5% dextrose in water

    • 0.45% sodium chloride

    • 10% dextrose in water

    • 0.9% sodium chloride

47. The nurse has obtained a unit of blood from the blood bank and has checked the blood bag properly with another nurse. Just before beginning the transfusion, the nurse assess which of the following items?

    • Vital sign

    • Skin color

    • Urine output

    • Latest hematocrit level

48. Best type of solution to use for the irrigation of urinary catheter…

    • Distilled water

    • Normal saline

    • Tap water

    • Warm water

    • 

49. The most important way to prevent the spread of infection is………….

    • Wearing gloves

    • Hand washing

    • Wearing mask

    • Wearing coat

50. Which instrument is used to test the client’s hearing?

    • Stethoscope

    • Tuning fork

    • Otoscope

    • Reflex hammers

51. When is international nurse’s day celebrated?

    • 12th May

    • 12th March

    • 2nd May

    • 31st July

52. A nurse is preparing a preoperative client for transfer to the operating room. The nurse should take which action in the care of this client at this time?

    • Ensure that the client has voided

    • Administer all the daily medications

    • Practice postoperative breathing exercises

    • Verify that the client has not eaten for the last 24 hours

53. The nurse is performing an abdominal assessment the nurse performs which assessment at first…..

    • Auscultation

    • Inspection

    • Palpation

    • Percussion

54. While giving an intradermal injection the needle should be held at ……

    • 15⁰

    • 45⁰

    • 30⁰

    • 90⁰

55. Appropriate temperature of solution prepared for sitz-bath should be………

    • 105-110⁰ F

    • 100-105⁰F

    • 110-115⁰F

    • 115-120⁰F

56. The nurse determines that a client is having a transfusion reaction. After the nurse stops the transfusion, which action should immediately be taken next………

    • Remove IV line

    • Run normal saline at a keep vein open rate

    • Run a solution of 5% dextrose in water

    • Obtain a culture of the tip of catheter device removed from the client

57. When suctioning an unconscious client, which nursing intervention should the nurse prioritize in maintaining cerebral perfusion….

    • Administer diuretics

    • Administer analgesics

    • Provide hygiene

    • Hyper oxygenate before

58. Savlon is……..

    • Cetrimide

    • Chlorhexidine

    • Chloroxylenol

    • A and B

59. Scald is a burn caused by……….

    • Dry heat

    • Radiation

    • Moist heat

    • Friction

    • 

60. When you perform CPR on an unresponsive adult, you should correctly assess the pulse of which location?

    • Over the radial artery

    • Over the carotid artery

    • Over the brachial artery

    • Over the temporal artery

61. Which of the following would the nurse use as the most reliable indicator of a patient’s fluid balance status?

    • Intake and output

    • Skin turgor

    • Complete blood count

    • Daily weight

62. Health policy formation in Nepal since……

    • 1991 AD

    • 1998 AD

    • 1995 AD

    • 1999 AD

63. Trachoma is a disease of………….

    • Eye lid

    • Cornea

    • Conjunctiva

    • Lachrymal gland

64. Koplik’s spot is the clinical feature of……….

    • Measles

    • Tuberculosis

    • Chicken pox

    • Leprosy

65. BCG vaccine is against………..

    • Measles

    • Diphtheria

    • Tuberculosis

    • Whooping cough

66. DOTS stand for………….

    • Directly observed treatment short course

    • Direct observed treatment short course

    • Direct observed treatment system

    • Directly observed treatment system

67. The vector for malaria is………….

    • Plasmodium vivax

    • Plasmodium falciparum

    • Plasmodium malaria

    • Female anopheles mosquito

68. HIV/AIDS is caused by a………….

    • Retro virus

    • Rhabdo virus

    • Rota virus

    • Pox virus

69. Which of the following is waterborne disease?

    • Meningitis

    • Typhoid

    • Hepatitis A

    • Malaria

70. Kala-azar is caused by…………vector

    • Malaria

    • Sand fly

    • Housefly

    • Bee

71. Syphilis is caused by………….

    • Salmonella Typhi

    • Neisseria gonorrhea

    • Treponema pallidum

    • Streptococcus

72. What type of vaccination is given against measles?

    • Live attenuated

    • Killed

    • Toxoid

    • Inactive

73. Which of the following is principle of primary health care?

    • Health education

    • Dental health

    • Mental health

    • Community participation

74. Oral contraceptives act by……………

    • Preventing ovulation

    • Making endometrial non-reactive to embryo

    • Making inactive to sperm

    • Inhibiting sperm penetration to the ovum

75. The ages of child to receive DPT vaccine are………….

    • 6 week, 10 week, 14 week

    • 6 week, 7 week, 8 week

    • 6 week, 7 week, 8 week

    • 1 week, 2 week, 3 week

76. When was the ALMA Ata conference held?

    • 1972

    • 1988

    • 1978

    • 1990

77. Which of the following comes under STDs disease?

    • HIV/AIDS

    • Typhoid

    • Diarrhea

    • Leprosy

78. When oral contraceptives are prescribed for a patient, the nurse should teach the client about the potential of developing……….

    • Cervicitis

    • Fibrocystic disease

    • Ovarian cyst

    • Break through bleeding

79. Which of the following are not the 6 killer diseases?

    • ARI

    • Diarrhea

    • Measles

    • Meningitis

80. When emergency contraceptive should be taken after the unprotected sexual intercourse?

    • Within 24 hrs

    • Within 48 hrs

    • Within 36 hrs

    • Within 72 hrs

81. What is the best method of solid waste disposal?

    • Composting

    • Incineration

    • Dumping

    • Burial

82. Which of the following permanent family planning method requires contraceptives at least for 20 ejaculation surgery?

    • Vasectomy

    • Laparoscopy

    • Minilap

    • Norplant

83. The comprehensive assessment of the health status of an entire community is called……….

    • Community diagnosis

    • Micro-teaching

    • Home visit

    • Health education

84. Which type of approach is used in home visit?

    • Individual approach

    • Group approach

    • Mass approach

    • Media approach

85. Which of following contraceptives is excluded in the outreach clinic?

    • Oral pills

    • ORS packet

    • Condom

    • Norplant

86. The cases occurs irregular haphazardly form time to time and generally infrequently is…………

    • Epidemic

    • Sporadic

    • Pandemic

    • None

NNC License Model Questions Set (May 2025)

Table of Contents(toc)

Important Nursing MCQs Model Questions

1. What is the pressure of vitreous humor in the eyes?

• 5-10 mm of HG

• 15-20 mm of HG

• 10-15 mm of HG

• 20-25 mm of HG

2. How many bones are present in the human vertebra?

• 25

• 64

• 33

• 80

3. The process of blood cell formation is known as…

• Thrombocytosis

• Leucocytosis

• Erythropoiesis

• Hemolysis

4. Which of the following is the most important electrolyte of intracellular fluid?

• Sodium

• Calcium

• Potassium

• Chloride

5. The safest route for injection is…

• Intravenous

• Intraperitoneal

• Intrapleural

• Intracardial

6. The normal WBC count is…

• 4000-11000

• 400000-900000

• 150000-400000

• 4.5-6.5 *10⁶

7. A nurse is administering a hypotonic IV solution. Which of the following is the correct solution?

• 5% dextrose in water

• 0.45% sodium chloride

• 10% dextrose in water

• 0.9% sodium chloride

8. What is the normal intake of water per day?

• 1000 ml

• 2000 ml

• 1500 ml

• 2500 ml

9. The beta cells of Islets of Langerhans secrete which hormone?

• Glucagon

• Glycogen

• Insulin

• Amylase

10. Which chamber of the heart pumps oxygenated blood to the aorta?

• Right atrium

• Right ventricle

• Left atrium

• Left ventricle

11. A patient is scheduled for urinary catheterization. In which position should the nurse place the patient?

• Dorsal recumbent position

• Supine position

• Trendelenburg position

• Prone position

12. The fastest route for administering medicine is…

• IV (Intravenous)

• ID (Intradermal)

• IM (Intramuscular)

• SC (Subcutaneous)

13. When is International Nurses Day celebrated?

• 12th May

• 12th March

• 2nd May

• 31st July

14. The most effective way to prevent the spread of infection is…

• Wearing gloves

• Hand washing

• Wearing a mask

• Wearing a coat

15. A patient is having dyspnea. To facilitate respiration, the nurse would…

• Remove the pillow from under the head

• Elevate the head of the bed

• Elevate the foot of the bed

• Take the blood pressure

How to check ctevt result with marksheet?

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Deep tendon reflexes roots

Superficial reflexes roots

Model Question 

Vital Signs

• Blood Pressure: <120 mmHg Systolic, <80 mmHg Diastolic
• Heart Rate: 60 – 100 bpm
• Respirations: 12 – 20 breaths/min
• Oxygen Saturation: 92% – 100%
• Temperature: 97.8°F – 99°F

Complete Blood Count (CBC)

• Hemoglobin: 12 – 18 g/dL
• Hematocrit: 35% – 55%
• Total RBC: 4 – 6 million/mm³
• Platelets: 150,000 – 400,000 /mm³
• WBC: 4,000 – 10,000 /mm³

Electrolytes

• Sodium: 135 – 145 mEq/L
• Potassium: 3.5 – 5 mEq/L
• Magnesium: 1.3 – 2.1 mEq/L
• Calcium: 9 – 10.5 mg/dL
• Phosphorous: 3.0 – 4.5 mg/dL
• Ammonia: 15 – 45 µg/dL

Liver Panel

• ALT: 10 – 36 U/L
• AST: 0 – 35 U/L
• Bilirubin: 0.2 – 1.2 mg/dL
• Total Protein: 6 – 8 g/dL

Arterial Blood Gas (ABG)

• pH: 7.35 – 7.45
• PaCO2: 35 – 45 mmHg
• PaO2: 80 – 100 mmHg
• HCO3 (Bicarbonate): 22 – 26 mEq/L

Coagulation / Cardiac Enzymes

• PT: 10 – 20 seconds
• PTT: 25 – 35 seconds
• INR: 2 – 3
• Troponin T: <0.10 ng/mL
• Troponin I: <0.03 ng/mL
• BNP: <100

Renal Function

• BUN: 7 – 20 mg/dL
• Creatinine: 0.6 – 1.2 mg/dL
• Creatinine Clearance: 85 – 135 mL/min
• Serum Albumin: 3.5 – 5.5 g/dL
• Specific Gravity: 1.010 – 1.030

Random Values

• ICP: 7 – 15 mmHg
• MAP: 70 – 100 mmHg
• Amylase: 30 – 200 U/L
• Lipase: 0 – 160 U/L

Metabolism

• Cholesterol: <200
• LDL: <70
• HDL: >60
• Triglycerides: <150
• Glucose: <200
• Hemoglobin A1C: 4 – 5.7%