Basic needs of clients (Maslow’s Hierarchy of needs) TU Staff Nurse Model MCQs

Here are 30 multiple-choice questions (MCQs) on the topic “Basic Needs of Clients (Maslow’s Hierarchy of Needs)”:

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1. What is the primary focus of Maslow’s Hierarchy of Needs?

a) Identifying psychological disorders
b) Explaining human motivation based on needs
c) Classifying medical treatments
d) Developing new healthcare technologies

Answer: b) Explaining human motivation based on needs

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2. Which of the following is the most basic level of Maslow’s Hierarchy of Needs?

a) Self-actualization
b) Esteem needs
c) Physiological needs
d) Safety needs

Answer: c) Physiological needs

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3. Physiological needs include all of the following EXCEPT:

a) Food
b) Water
c) Employment
d) Sleep

Answer: c) Employment

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4. Which level in Maslow’s hierarchy includes personal security and financial stability?

a) Love and belonging
b) Safety needs
c) Esteem needs
d) Self-actualization

Answer: b) Safety needs

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5. A patient who is worried about not having a place to sleep is primarily concerned with which need?

a) Physiological needs
b) Safety needs
c) Esteem needs
d) Self-actualization

Answer: a) Physiological needs

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6. Love and belonging needs focus on:

a) Personal relationships and social connections
b) Financial security
c) Career growth
d) Physical health

Answer: a) Personal relationships and social connections

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7. Which of the following is an example of meeting a client’s safety needs?

a) Providing oxygen therapy
b) Assisting in job placement
c) Ensuring the client is free from harm and abuse
d) Encouraging participation in group therapy

Answer: c) Ensuring the client is free from harm and abuse

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8. What is a key element of esteem needs?

a) Recognition and respect from others
b) Access to healthcare services
c) Secure shelter
d) Freedom from physical harm

Answer: a) Recognition and respect from others

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9. Self-actualization is best described as:

a) Achieving one’s full potential and personal growth
b) Earning enough money to retire
c) Receiving adequate healthcare
d) Developing strong friendships

Answer: a) Achieving one’s full potential and personal growth

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10. A person seeking to become the best version of themselves is fulfilling which need?

a) Physiological
b) Safety
c) Esteem
d) Self-actualization

Answer: d) Self-actualization

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11. What is the correct order of Maslow’s Hierarchy of Needs (from basic to highest level)?

a) Physiological, safety, love/belonging, esteem, self-actualization
b) Esteem, safety, physiological, love/belonging, self-actualization
c) Self-actualization, esteem, safety, love/belonging, physiological
d) Physiological, love/belonging, safety, esteem, self-actualization

Answer: a) Physiological, safety, love/belonging, esteem, self-actualization

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12. A nurse providing emotional support to a grieving patient is addressing which need?

a) Safety
b) Esteem
c) Love and belonging
d) Physiological

Answer: c) Love and belonging

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13. Which of the following interventions addresses a patient’s esteem needs?

a) Encouraging independence in daily activities
b) Providing a warm blanket
c) Ensuring a safe home environment
d) Offering a healthy meal

Answer: a) Encouraging independence in daily activities

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14. Which need must be met before a person can focus on love and belonging?

a) Self-actualization
b) Esteem
c) Physiological and safety
d) None; needs can be met in any order

Answer: c) Physiological and safety

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15. Nurses can help clients meet their physiological needs by:

a) Encouraging self-care activities
b) Ensuring they have access to food, water, and rest
c) Teaching stress management techniques
d) Providing job placement services

Answer: b) Ensuring they have access to food, water, and rest

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16. What is an example of a client striving for self-actualization?

a) Seeking therapy for emotional distress
b) Pursuing higher education or a creative hobby
c) Looking for stable housing
d) Requesting pain relief medication

Answer: b) Pursuing higher education or a creative hobby

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17. A homeless patient seeking shelter is primarily focused on which level of needs?

a) Safety
b) Physiological
c) Esteem
d) Love and belonging

Answer: b) Physiological

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18. Nurses address safety needs by:

a) Monitoring patients for fall risks
b) Encouraging participation in therapy groups
c) Providing meals to malnourished patients
d) Promoting self-confidence

Answer: a) Monitoring patients for fall risks

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19. Which of the following is NOT a component of Maslow’s Hierarchy?

a) Cognitive needs
b) Physiological needs
c) Esteem needs
d) Love and belonging

Answer: a) Cognitive needs

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20. What is a practical way to help a hospitalized patient meet their love and belonging needs?

a) Allowing visits from family and friends
b) Ensuring proper pain management
c) Offering financial assistance
d) Providing career counseling

Answer: a) Allowing visits from family and friends

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21. Self-esteem can be improved by:

a) Helping a patient regain independence
b) Giving them a warm blanket
c) Administering prescribed medications
d) Offering spiritual counseling

Answer: a) Helping a patient regain independence

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22. Which of the following is an example of self-actualization?

a) A patient recovering from an illness and starting a new business
b) A person seeking financial assistance
c) A patient learning how to walk again after surgery
d) A child receiving vaccinations

Answer: a) A patient recovering from an illness and starting a new business

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23. The need for social relationships is part of which level?

a) Safety
b) Love and belonging
c) Esteem
d) Self-actualization

Answer: b) Love and belonging

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24. What is an example of a nurse promoting self-actualization in a client?

a) Encouraging goal-setting and personal growth
b) Providing physical therapy
c) Ensuring a safe home environment
d) Giving vaccinations

Answer: a) Encouraging goal-setting and personal growth

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25. A nurse teaching relaxation techniques to reduce a patient’s anxiety addresses which need?

a) Safety
b) Physiological
c) Esteem
d) Love and belonging

Answer: a) Safety

26. The most basic human needs are:

a) Esteem needs
b) Physiological needs
c) Safety needs
d) Love and belonging

Answer: b) Physiological needs

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27. The need for emotional connections and friendships falls under:

a) Safety needs
b) Self-actualization
c) Love and belonging
d) Physiological needs

Answer: c) Love and belonging

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28. The desire for respect, recognition, and self-worth is part of:

a) Physiological needs
b) Esteem needs
c) Safety needs
d) Love and belonging

Answer: b) Esteem needs

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29. Maslow’s highest level of human needs is:

a) Safety
b) Love and belonging
c) Self-actualization
d) Esteem

Answer: c) Self-actualization

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30. Ensuring patient privacy and dignity supports:

a) Love and belonging
b) Physiological needs
c) Esteem needs
d) Safety needs

Answer: c) Esteem needs

TU Nursing Officer Syllabus: Complete Guide to Exam Topics and Preparation 2081

1. Fundamentals of Nursing

1.1 Definition of Nursing

• Role and responsibilities of Nursing
• Stress and coping mechanisms
• Crisis and its management

1.2 Nursing Process

• Definition, components, and advantages
• Maslow’s Hierarchy of Needs

1.3 Communication

• Definition and types
• Barriers and process
• Ways of removing barriers

2. Common Health Problems Throughout the Lifespan

2.1 Pediatric Newborn Assessment

• 2.1.1 Newborn problems and their management
• High-risk newborns and their management
• 2.1.2 Developmental milestones of difficult stages of children (Infant, Toddler, Preschool, School-age, Adolescents)
• 2.1.3 Developmental tasks of different age groups
• Common health and behavioral problems of children and their management

2.2 Adult Section

• 2.2.1 Physiological and psychological development
• Lifestyle and developmental tasks of adults
• 2.2.2 Young adults, middle-aged adults, and elderly adults
• 2.2.3 Health problems and nursing management of common health problems in young, middle-aged, and elderly adults

3. Nursing Concepts and Principles

3.1 History of Nursing

• National and international perspectives

3.2 Nursing Theory

• V. Anderson
• D. Orem
• A. Roy
• Florence Nightingale
• Leininger’s Culture Care Theory

3.3 Nursing Process

• Steps of the nursing process

3.4 Pain and Stress Management

• Nursing and medical management

3.5 Holistic Health Care

• Components and methods of holistic care
• Alternative medicine

3.6 Creativity in Nursing

• Methods of creativity
• Barriers to creativity

3.7 Health and Illness

• Homeostasis
• Stages of illness
• Therapeutic and anti-therapeutic communication

3.8 Legal Rights

3.9 ICN Code of Nursing

3.10 Professional Development

3.11 Trends and Issues in Nursing

• Effects on healthcare

4. Psychiatric Nursing

• 4.1 Mental health problems and their management
• Treatment modalities

5. Leadership and Management

5.1 Management

• Definition, principles, and functions

5.2 Planning

• Definition, types, benefits, and limitations

5.3 Organizing

• Definition, principles, and benefits

5.4 Directions

• Leadership: Definitions, principles, styles
• Monitoring and Supervision: Definition, purpose, types, process
• Motivation: Authority, power, responsibilities, accountability, obligations (definition, sources, benefits)

5.5 Controlling

• Definition, types, and process

5.6 Professional Organizations

• 5.6.1 ICN
• 5.6.2 NAW
• 5.6.3 WNC
• 5.6.4 MDDSON

6. Research in Nursing

6.1 Research Fundamentals

• Definition, purpose, importance, scope, and significance

6.2 Research Methodology

• Types of research
• Steps of research
• Ethical aspects of research

6.3 Research Proposal and Reporting

• Proposal of research
• Research report

6.4 Biostatistics and Epidemiology

• Definition and purpose

7. Teaching and Learning

7.1 Fundamentals of Teaching and Learning

• Definition, principles, and purposes
• Methods and types of teaching-learning methods

7.2 Influencing Factors and Characteristics

7.3 Teaching-Learning Materials

• Audiovisual aids

7.4 Evaluation and Feedback

TU Staff Nurse Syllabus: Complete Guide to Exam Topics and Preparation 2081

Topodiagnostic Tests of the Facial Nerve

The facial nerve (cranial nerve VII) is responsible for motor control of facial muscles, taste sensation from the anterior two-thirds of the tongue, and certain autonomic functions. When a facial nerve lesion occurs, it is crucial to determine the exact site of involvement to guide treatment. This process is called topodiagnosis, and it relies on various specialized tests.

Anatomy and Importance of Topodiagnosis

The facial nerve has multiple segments: intracranial, intratemporal (labyrinthine, tympanic, and mastoid segments), and extracranial portions. Different functions of the nerve are affected depending on the lesion site, which is why specific topodiagnostic tests are essential for localization.

Topodiagnostic Tests of the Facial Nerve

1. Schirmer’s Test

   • Evaluates lacrimal gland function by measuring tear production.
   • A filter paper strip is placed under the lower eyelid, and tear absorption is measured after 5 minutes.
   • Reduced tear production suggests a lesion proximal to the greater petrosal nerve (near the geniculate ganglion).

2. Stapedial Reflex Test (Acoustic Reflex Test)

   • The stapedius muscle, innervated by the facial nerve, contracts in response to loud sounds.
   • Absence of the reflex suggests a lesion proximal to the nerve to stapedius, typically in the tympanic segment of the facial nerve.

3. Taste Testing (Chorda Tympani Function)

   • Assesses taste perception on the anterior two-thirds of the tongue.
   • Impaired taste indicates a lesion proximal to the chorda tympani.

4. Salivary Flow Test

   • Measures submandibular and sublingual gland function.
   • Reduced salivation suggests a lesion above the origin of the chorda tympani.

5. Electroneurography (ENoG)

   • Evaluates facial nerve degeneration by measuring electrical response of facial muscles.
   • Useful in predicting prognosis, especially in Bell’s palsy.

6. Electromyography (EMG)

   • Assesses voluntary muscle activity and nerve regeneration.
   • Helps differentiate complete from partial nerve lesions.

7. Blink Reflex Test

   • Evaluates brainstem reflex pathways.
   • Delayed or absent response suggests brainstem involvement or a high-level nerve lesion.

8. Nerve Excitability Test (NET)

   • Determines the minimal electrical stimulus required to elicit a facial muscle response.
   • Increased threshold suggests nerve degeneration.

9. Magnetic Resonance Imaging (MRI) and Computed Tomography (CT)

   • Used to identify structural causes such as tumors, fractures, or inflammation along the nerve pathway.

Here’s a mnemonic to help remember the topodiagnostic tests of the facial nerve in order:

Mnemonic:

“Some Strange Tests Show Every Nerve’s Blink & Motion”

Breakdown:

• S – Schirmer’s Test (Tear production)
• S – Stapedial Reflex Test (Stapedius muscle function)
• T – Taste Testing (Chorda tympani function)
• S – Salivary Flow Test (Saliva production)
• E – Electroneurography (ENoG) (Facial nerve degeneration)
• N – Nerve Excitability Test (NET) (Electrical threshold for muscle response)
• B – Blink Reflex Test (Brainstem reflex evaluation)
• M – MRI/CT Imaging (Structural assessment)

This phrase makes it easier to recall the major diagnostic tests in order. Hope this helps! Let me know if you’d like an alternative version.

Conclusion

Topodiagnostic tests play a critical role in localizing facial nerve lesions, guiding further management, and predicting recovery. By correlating clinical findings with these tests, healthcare professionals can determine whether the lesion is intracranial, intratemporal, or extracranial, ensuring accurate diagnosis and appropriate treatment.

Model Question Set – 13th License Exam for Physiotherapy

Section A: Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs) (20 x 1 = 20 marks)

(Choose the correct answer from the given options.)

1. Which plane divides the body into left and right halves?
   a) Frontal plane
   b) Sagittal plane
   c) Transverse plane
   d) Coronal plane

2. The primary function of the quadriceps muscle is:
   a) Knee flexion
   b) Knee extension
   c) Hip abduction
   d) Hip extension

3. The functional unit of a muscle is called:
   a) Myosin
   b) Actin
   c) Sarcomere
   d) Motor unit

4. Which of the following is a closed-chain exercise?
   a) Bicep curl
   b) Leg press
   c) Seated knee extension
   d) Dumbbell shoulder press

5. The normal range of motion (ROM) for shoulder flexion is:
   a) 90°
   b) 120°
   c) 180°
   d) 220°

6. The Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) is used to assess:
   a) Muscle strength
   b) Joint range of motion
   c) Level of consciousness
   d) Respiratory function

7. Which modality is most appropriate for acute inflammation?
   a) Ultrasound therapy
   b) Cryotherapy
   c) Shortwave diathermy
   d) Heat therapy

8. The Berg Balance Scale is used to assess:
   a) Endurance
   b) Coordination
   c) Postural stability
   d) Strength

9. Which nerve is commonly affected in Carpal Tunnel Syndrome?
   a) Ulnar nerve
   b) Radial nerve
   c) Median nerve
   d) Sciatic nerve

10. The McKenzie method is primarily used in the treatment of:
    a) Stroke
    b) Lower back pain
    c) Frozen shoulder
    d) ACL injury

Model Question Set – 13th License Exam for CMLT (model Question)

Table of Contents(toc)

(Choose the correct answer from the given options.)

1. The normal range of hemoglobin in adult males is:
   a) 10-12 g/dL
   b) 12-16 g/dL
   c) 14-18 g/dL
   d) 18-22 g/dL

2. Which stain is commonly used for peripheral blood smear examination?
   a) Gram stain
   b) Giemsa stain
   c) Ziehl-Neelsen stain
   d) Wright stain

3. The causative agent of tuberculosis is:
   a) Staphylococcus aureus
   b) Mycobacterium tuberculosis
   c) Escherichia coli
   d) Klebsiella pneumoniae

4. Which blood group is known as the universal recipient?
   a) O-
   b) AB+
   c) B+
   d) A-

5. The enzyme amylase is mainly responsible for the digestion of:
   a) Proteins
   b) Carbohydrates
   c) Lipids
   d) Nucleic acids

6. The normal fasting blood glucose level is:
   a) 70-99 mg/dL
   b) 100-140 mg/dL
   c) 150-200 mg/dL
   d) 50-60 mg/dL

7. Which method is used for sterilization of culture media?
   a) Autoclaving
   b) Filtration
   c) Radiation
   d) Boiling

8. The reagent used for Widal test is:
   a) Coomb’s reagent
   b) Agglutination reagent
   c) Antigen reagent
   d) Hemolysin

9. Which of the following is a gram-negative bacteria?
   a) Streptococcus pneumoniae
   b) Staphylococcus aureus
   c) Escherichia coli
   d) Clostridium tetani

10. The anticoagulant used in complete blood count (CBC) is:
    a) EDTA
    b) Heparin
    c) Sodium citrate
    d) Potassium oxalate

Model Question Set – 13th License Exam for Health Assistant

(Choose the correct answer from the given options.)

1. What is the normal range of body temperature in Celsius?
   a) 35°C – 36°C
   b) 36.1°C – 37.2°C
   c) 37.5°C – 39°C
   d) 34°C – 35°C

2. Which of the following is a water-soluble vitamin?
   a) Vitamin A
   b) Vitamin D
   c) Vitamin C
   d) Vitamin K

3. The universal blood donor type is:
   a) A+
   b) O-
   c) B+
   d) AB+

4. The incubation period of Hepatitis B is:
   a) 10-15 days
   b) 30-180 days
   c) 5-7 days
   d) 1-2 years

5. The expanded form of ORS is:
   a) Oral Rehydration Solution
   b) Oral Remedy System
   c) Oral Recovery Solution
   d) Oral Rehydration Salt

6. The normal respiratory rate in adults is:
   a) 8-12 breaths per minute
   b) 12-20 breaths per minute
   c) 20-30 breaths per minute
   d) 30-40 breaths per minute

7. The vaccine given at birth as part of the National Immunization Program is:
   a) DPT
   b) BCG
   c) OPV
   d) Hepatitis B

8. Which of the following diseases is caused by a virus?
   a) Tuberculosis
   b) Malaria
   c) Measles
   d) Typhoid

9. The main function of Red Blood Cells (RBCs) is to:
   a) Fight infections
   b) Transport oxygen
   c) Produce antibodies
   d) Maintain blood pressure

10. Universal precautions in infection control include:
    a) Handwashing
    b) Wearing gloves
    c) Proper disposal of needles
    d) All of the above

Multiple-choice questions (MCQs) on vector-borne diseases

Table of Contents(toc)

Multiple Choice Questions on Vector-Borne Diseases

Question 1

Which of the following is a vector-borne disease transmitted by mosquitoes?

(A) Tuberculosis
(B) Malaria
(C) Cholera
(D) Measles

Answer: (B) Malaria
Explanation: Malaria is caused by parasites transmitted to humans through the bites of infected Anopheles mosquitoes.

Question 2

The vector for Dengue fever is:

(A) Anopheles mosquito
(B) Culex mosquito
(C) Aedes mosquito
(D) Tsetse fly

Answer: (C) Aedes mosquito
Explanation: Dengue fever is primarily transmitted by the Aedes aegypti mosquito.

Question 3

Which of the following diseases is transmitted by the bite of an infected sandfly?

(A) Lyme disease
(B) West Nile Virus
(C) Leishmaniasis
(D) River Blindness

Answer: (C) Leishmaniasis
Explanation: Leishmaniasis is a parasitic disease transmitted through the bite of infected female phlebotomine sandflies.

Question 4

The causative agent of Lyme disease is:

(A) A virus
(B) A bacterium
(C) A parasite
(D) A fungus

Answer: (B) A bacterium
Explanation: Lyme disease is caused by the bacterium Borrelia burgdorferi, transmitted to humans through the bite of infected blacklegged ticks.

Question 5

Which of the following is a control measure for vector-borne diseases?

(A) Vaccination of the human population
(B) Use of insecticides to control vector populations
(C) Improved sanitation and waste management
(D) All of the above

Answer: (D) All of the above
Explanation: A comprehensive approach to controlling vector-borne diseases includes targeting the pathogen, the vector, and the environment.

Question 6

What type of disease is Zika?

(A) Bacterial
(B) Viral
(C) Parasitic
(D) Fungal

Answer: (B) Viral
Explanation: Zika is caused by the Zika virus.

Question 7

Which of the following diseases is NOT typically considered a vector-borne disease?

(A) Plague
(B) Rabies
(C) Yellow Fever
(D) Chikungunya

Answer: (B) Rabies
Explanation: Rabies is typically transmitted through the saliva of infected mammals (e.g., dogs, bats), not through an arthropod vector. While bats can be vectors, the transmission is direct (bite), not vector-borne in the classic sense.

Question 8

What is the primary target of insecticide-treated nets (ITNs) used to prevent malaria?

(A) Mosquito larvae
(B) Adult mosquitoes
(C) The malaria parasite
(D) Human hosts

Answer: (B) Adult mosquitoes
Explanation: ITNs are designed to kill or repel adult mosquitoes, preventing them from biting and transmitting the malaria parasite.

Question 9

Which of the following is a characteristic symptom of malaria?

(A) Joint pain
(B) High fever and chills
(C) Skin rash
(D) Severe headache only

Answer: (B) High fever and chills
Explanation: Malaria is typically characterized by cyclical high fevers, chills, and sweating.

Question 10

Which of the following vectors transmits West Nile Virus?

(A) Tsetse Fly
(B) Mosquito
(C) Tick
(D) Sandfly

Answer: (B) Mosquito
Explanation: West Nile Virus is transmitted by mosquitoes, primarily Culex species.

Question 11

Which of the following diseases is transmitted by the deer tick?

(A) Malaria
(B) Dengue Fever
(C) Lyme disease
(D) Zika Virus

Answer: (C) Lyme disease
Explanation: Lyme disease is transmitted by the deer tick (also known as the black-legged tick).

Question 12

Which of the following is a neglected tropical disease (NTD) transmitted by insects?

(A) Influenza
(B) Tuberculosis
(C) Onchocerciasis (River Blindness)
(D) Pneumonia

Answer: (C) Onchocerciasis (River Blindness)
Explanation: Onchocerciasis, or River Blindness, is caused by a parasitic worm and transmitted by blackflies. It is classified as a Neglected Tropical Disease.

Question 13

What is the main strategy for preventing the spread of Zika virus?

(A) Vaccination
(B) Vector control (mosquito control)
(C) Antibiotics
(D) Antiviral medications

Answer: (B) Vector control (mosquito control)
Explanation: Currently, there is no vaccine or specific antiviral treatment for Zika virus. The primary prevention strategy focuses on controlling mosquito populations and preventing mosquito bites.

Question 14

Chagas disease is transmitted by which vector?

(A) Mosquitoes
(B) Ticks
(C) Kissing bugs (Reduviid bugs)
(D) Sandflies

Answer: (C) Kissing bugs (Reduviid bugs)
Explanation: Chagas disease is transmitted by triatomine bugs, also known as “kissing bugs.”

Question 15

Which of the following is a symptom of Chikungunya?

(A) Severe joint pain
(B) Vomiting
(C) Diarrhea
(D) Runny nose

Answer: (A) Severe joint pain
Explanation: Chikungunya is known for causing fever and severe joint pain (arthralgia).

I hope these MCQs are helpful! Let me know if you have any questions.

Falgun 2081 : Today NNC had published  Nursing licenses result of nursing license examination

Nepal Nursing Council (NNC) is established under Nepal Nursing Council Act 2052 (1996).it came into force on 2053-03-02(16June 1996).first amendment of the act was done on 2058/10/14 (17th January, 2002 A.D.) However, initially the office of council was located within the premises of Ministry of Health at present it is located in Bansbari, Kathmandu.

How to check NNC nursing result 2081 falgun?

1. Please folow the following link or click here.

Link : https://nnc.org.np/

2. Click on desired link on right side: as shown in image below:

3. Enter roll number and view result.

Why is texas good or bad for nursing

Comment your result below.

Congratulations.

Congratulations Everyone for Passing Nursing License Examination.

Now it’s time to Get your Nursing License Registration Certificate 

Documents Required and Schedule for the License Certificate of NNC Examination !

Documents Required to get NNC License certificate:

• All Original Educational Documents Including from SEE to PCL or BSC Majorly Needed SEE Marksheet and Character, PCL or BSC Transcript or Character Certificate
• Pay Rs 1200 Through your NNC ID By logging into that.
• Original Citizenship
• Admit Card
• 2 PP Size Photo same as uploaded.

Students are requested to go as per Schedule to get their NNC Certificate.

Schedule to get NNC License 

Please visit on time. 

Thank you.