Month: February 2025

Medical Laboratory Technology MCQs for NHPC Nepal – PCL in Medical Laboratory Technology License Exam

Here are 50 multiple-choice questions (MCQs) for the PCL in Medical Laboratory Technology (CMLT/DMLT) License Examination. These questions cover various topics in medical laboratory technology, including laboratory techniques, instrumentation, and patient safety. The answer key is provided at the end.

Table of Contents(toc)

1. Which of the following tests is primarily used for diagnosing diabetes mellitus?

a) Hemoglobin A1c
b) Complete blood count (CBC)
c) Blood urea nitrogen (BUN)
d) Liver function test (LFT)

2. The main function of a centrifuge in the laboratory is to:

a) Sterilize instruments
b) Separate components of blood
c) Mix chemicals
d) Measure chemical reactions

3. Which of the following is the best method to sterilize heat-sensitive materials?

a) Autoclaving
b) Dry heat sterilization
c) Chemical sterilization
d) Filtration

4. What does the term “hematocrit” refer to?

a) The percentage of plasma in the blood
b) The percentage of white blood cells in the blood
c) The percentage of red blood cells in the blood
d) The amount of hemoglobin in the blood

5. Which of the following tubes is used to collect blood for a complete blood count (CBC)?

a) Red top tube
b) Blue top tube
c) Lavender top tube
d) Green top tube

6. The normal range for a white blood cell count in adults is:

a) 3,500-10,500 cells/µL
b) 150,000-450,000 cells/µL
c) 4-6 g/dL
d) 80-100 mg/dL

7. The primary use of a spectrophotometer is to measure:

a) Blood pressure
b) Light absorption
c) pH levels
d) Temperature

8. Which of the following blood tests is used to assess kidney function?

a) Creatinine
b) Hemoglobin
c) Amylase
d) Albumin

9. What is the function of an incubator in a medical laboratory?

a) To sterilize equipment
b) To maintain a controlled environment for microbial growth
c) To mix chemicals
d) To separate blood components

10. Which of the following is NOT typically a part of a routine urinalysis?

a) pH measurement
b) Red blood cell count
c) Glucose levels
d) Protein levels

11. A gram stain is used primarily to classify bacteria based on their:

a) Shape
b) Size
c) Cell wall structure
d) Growth pattern

12. The presence of ketones in urine is commonly associated with:

a) Diabetes mellitus
b) Liver disease
c) Dehydration
d) Kidney failure

13. Which test is used to assess liver function by measuring the levels of ALT and AST?

a) Renal function test
b) Lipid profile
c) Liver function test
d) Blood glucose test

14. The purpose of the hemoglobin A1c test is to:

a) Measure the average blood glucose levels over the past 2-3 months
b) Measure cholesterol levels
c) Diagnose kidney disease
d) Measure red blood cell count

15. The blood component responsible for clotting is:

a) White blood cells
b) Red blood cells
c) Platelets
d) Plasma

16. Which of the following methods is used for testing the presence of bacteria in water?

a) Gram staining
b) Biochemical testing
c) Endotoxin testing
d) Most probable number (MPN) method

17. The correct order of draw for venipuncture tubes is:

a) Blue, red, green, lavender
b) Red, green, blue, lavender
c) Green, blue, red, lavender
d) Blue, green, red, lavender

18. Which of the following is used to prevent the clotting of blood in a blood collection tube?

a) Heparin
b) Sodium citrate
c) EDTA
d) All of the above

19. A positive result for the ELISA test indicates:

a) The presence of a specific antigen or antibody
b) The presence of a virus
c) Low levels of glucose
d) A bacterial infection

20. The best temperature for storing most blood specimens is:

a) 0°C
b) 4°C
c) Room temperature
d) 37°C

21. Which of the following is a test used to detect tuberculosis?

a) Skin test (TST)
b) PPD test
c) Sputum culture
d) All of the above

22. The most common cause of anemia in the world is:

a) Vitamin B12 deficiency
b) Iron deficiency
c) Hemophilia
d) Leukemia

23. A patient with a high white blood cell count likely has:

a) Anemia
b) Infection
c) Liver disease
d) Diabetes

24. The primary role of a laboratory technician is to:

a) Perform surgeries
b) Analyze laboratory results
c) Diagnose diseases
d) Administer medications

25. In which of the following tests is a purple top tube used?

a) Blood glucose
b) Complete blood count (CBC)
c) Prothrombin time
d) Coagulation studies

26. Which of the following is used to monitor the level of cholesterol in the blood?

a) Lipid profile
b) Complete blood count
c) Liver function test
d) Renal function test

27. The most commonly used method to identify blood type is the:

a) Blood culture
b) Coombs test
c) Blood typing test
d) Hemoglobin test

28. The role of a clinical laboratory in the healthcare system is to:

a) Perform diagnostic tests
b) Provide imaging services
c) Perform surgeries
d) Administer patient medications

29. The purpose of a blood culture test is to detect:

a) Bacterial or fungal infections in the bloodstream
b) Blood clotting disorders
c) Anemia
d) High blood pressure

30. A common test used to assess thyroid function is the:

a) TSH test
b) Glucose test
c) BUN test
d) CBC test

31. Which of the following is used to assess the body’s ability to metabolize glucose?

a) Hemoglobin A1c
b) Fasting blood glucose
c) Oral glucose tolerance test
d) All of the above

32. The most common anticoagulant used in blood collection tubes is:

a) EDTA
b) Sodium citrate
c) Heparin
d) Potassium oxalate

33. A test commonly used to diagnose HIV infection is:

a) Western blot
b) PCR (Polymerase chain reaction)
c) ELISA
d) All of the above

34. Which of the following is a sign of dehydration in a laboratory test?

a) High hemoglobin level
b) Low blood urea nitrogen (BUN) level
c) Low red blood cell count
d) High blood glucose

35. A urinalysis is typically used to detect:

a) Blood in the urine
b) Protein in the urine
c) Glucose in the urine
d) All of the above

36. The main purpose of the prothrombin time (PT) test is to:

a) Measure the ability of blood to clot
b) Measure red blood cell count
c) Assess liver function
d) Assess kidney function

37. Which of the following is an example of an electrolyte test?

a) Sodium
b) Potassium
c) Calcium
d) All of the above

38. Which of the following is used to assess a patient’s hemoglobin levels?

a) Hemoglobin electrophoresis
b) Hemoglobin A1c
c) Complete blood count (CBC)
d) Blood glucose test

39. A normal white blood cell count for an adult is typically between:

a) 3,500-10,500 cells/µL
b) 5,000-15,000 cells/µL
c) 20,000-40,000 cells/µL
d) 10,000-30,000 cells/µL

40. A patient with high levels of creatinine likely has issues with:

a) The liver
b) The kidneys
c) The heart
d) The lungs

41. The primary function of plasma is to:

a) Carry oxygen
b) Transport nutrients
c) Carry waste products
d) Transport hormones

42. The purpose of performing a Gram stain is to:

a) Classify bacteria based on their cell wall structure
b) Identify viral infections
c) Determine the level of glucose
d) Assess kidney function

43. The most commonly used method for bacterial identification is:

a) Gram staining
b) Culturing
c) PCR (Polymerase chain reaction)
d) ELISA

44. The process of separating plasma or serum from blood is called:

a) Centrifugation
b) Filtration
c) Incubation
d) Incision

45. Which of the following is a common method for determining blood glucose levels?

a) Oral glucose tolerance test
b) Fasting blood glucose test
c) Hemoglobin A1c test
d) All of the above

46. Which of the following is an example of a blood test to detect liver function?

a) AST (Aspartate aminotransferase)
b) ALT (Alanine aminotransferase)
c) Bilirubin
d) All of the above

47. A high level of bilirubin in the blood may indicate:

a) Liver disease
b) Anemia
c) Kidney disease
d) Lung disease

48. Which of the following tests is used to detect and monitor HIV infection?

a) ELISA test
b) Western blot test
c) PCR test
d) All of the above

49. Which of the following tests is used to assess the clotting ability of blood?

a) Prothrombin time (PT)
b) Hemoglobin test
c) Urinalysis
d) Blood glucose test

50. Which of the following components is found in the plasma of blood?

a) Red blood cells
b) White blood cells
c) Platelets
d) Proteins

Answer Key

1. a
2. b
3. c
4. c
5. c
6. a
7. b
8. a
9. b
10. b
11. c
12. a
13. c
14. a
15. c
16. d
17. a
18. d
19. a
20. b
21. d
22. b
23. b
24. b
25. b
26. a
27. c
28. a
29. a
30. a
31. d
32. a
33. d
34. a
35. d
36. a
37. d
38. c
39. a
40. b
41. b
42. a
43. b
44. a
45. d
46. d
47. a
48. d
49. a
50. d

These MCQs are designed to cover a wide range of topics relevant to Medical Laboratory Technology (CMLT/DMLT) and can help in preparing for the PCL in Medical Laboratory Technology License Examination.

Radiotherapy Technology MCQs for NHPC Nepal – Diploma in Radiotherapy Technology License Exam

1. Radiotherapy is primarily used to treat:

a) Infections
b) Cancer
c) Fractures
d) Heart diseases

2. The main function of a linear accelerator (LINAC) in radiotherapy is to:

a) Deliver high-energy X-rays or electrons
b) Monitor the patient’s vital signs
c) Administer chemotherapy
d) Perform diagnostic imaging

3. The most commonly used type of radiation in external beam radiotherapy is:

a) Alpha particles
b) Beta particles
c) X-rays
d) Gamma rays

4. The primary goal of radiotherapy is to:

a) Shrink tumors or kill cancer cells
b) Increase blood flow to the tumor
c) Relieve bone pain
d) Remove tumor surgically

5. Which of the following techniques is used to deliver radiation from multiple directions to the tumor?

a) Brachytherapy
b) External beam radiotherapy
c) Proton therapy
d) Stereotactic radiotherapy

6. The term “fractionation” in radiotherapy refers to:

a) The division of the total dose into smaller doses over time
b) The total dose given in a single session
c) The type of radiation used
d) The treatment plan used for different cancers

7. Which of the following factors does NOT affect the effectiveness of radiotherapy?

a) Type of cancer
b) Size and location of the tumor
c) Age of the patient
d) Tumor’s sensitivity to radiation

8. Which of the following is the standard unit of measurement for radiation dose?

a) Rad
b) Gy (Gray)
c) Sievert (Sv)
d) Becquerel (Bq)

9. The purpose of immobilization devices during radiotherapy is to:

a) Keep the patient comfortable during the procedure
b) Prevent movement during treatment to ensure accurate radiation delivery
c) Relieve pain
d) Increase the speed of treatment

10. Which of the following is the most common form of internal radiotherapy?

a) External beam radiotherapy
b) Stereotactic radiotherapy
c) Brachytherapy
d) Proton therapy

11. Which of the following machines is commonly used in external beam radiotherapy?

a) Cyclotron
b) Linear accelerator (LINAC)
c) Gamma knife
d) MRI machine

12. Which type of radiation is primarily used in brachytherapy?

a) X-rays
b) Gamma rays
c) Electrons
d) Neutrons

13. The dose of radiation delivered to the tumor is typically prescribed by the:

a) Radiotherapy technologist
b) Radiation oncologist
c) Patient’s physician
d) Medical physicist

14. The side effects of radiotherapy depend on:

a) The patient’s age
b) The area being treated
c) The type of cancer
d) All of the above

15. The most common side effects of radiotherapy include:

a) Nausea and vomiting
b) Skin irritation and fatigue
c) Increased appetite
d) Hair growth

16. Which of the following is a long-term side effect of radiotherapy?

a) Hair loss
b) Radiation-induced cancer
c) Nausea
d) Skin burns

17. In radiotherapy, the term “dose rate” refers to:

a) The total amount of radiation delivered
b) The time over which radiation is administered
c) The rate at which radiation is delivered to the tissue
d) The type of radiation used

18. A common technique used to ensure precise radiation delivery to the tumor while minimizing exposure to surrounding tissues is:

a) 3D conformal radiotherapy
b) CT-guided radiotherapy
c) Intensity-modulated radiotherapy (IMRT)
d) All of the above

19. The purpose of bolus material in radiotherapy is to:

a) Increase the intensity of radiation
b) Minimize the radiation dose to the skin
c) Bring the dose closer to the skin surface
d) Remove cancerous tissues

20. Which of the following is a safety measure to protect staff from unnecessary radiation exposure during radiotherapy treatments?

a) Wearing lead aprons
b) Keeping a safe distance from the radiation source
c) Using shielding barriers
d) All of the above

21. The term “isodose curve” refers to:

a) A graph showing the radiation dose distribution across the tumor and surrounding tissues
b) A radiation measurement device
c) The calculation of the tumor size
d) The angle of radiation delivery

22. In radiotherapy, the use of contrast agents is most common in:

a) Imaging procedures like CT scans for planning radiation therapy
b) Stereotactic radiotherapy
c) Brachytherapy
d) X-ray therapy

23. Which of the following techniques is used to treat tumors that are difficult to reach using conventional radiotherapy?

a) Proton therapy
b) Brachytherapy
c) Stereotactic radiosurgery (SRS)
d) Linear accelerator (LINAC)

24. The most important factor to consider when setting up a radiotherapy treatment plan is:

a) The patient’s age
b) The patient’s physical condition
c) The tumor’s size, location, and type
d) The patient’s previous treatments

25. The role of the radiotherapy technologist includes all of the following EXCEPT:

a) Operating the radiotherapy equipment
b) Administering chemotherapy
c) Preparing and positioning the patient for treatment
d) Monitoring radiation dose delivery

26. The most common type of cancer treated with radiotherapy is:

a) Leukemia
b) Brain tumors
c) Breast cancer
d) Prostate cancer

27. The term “fractionation” refers to:

a) Giving the total radiation dose in smaller daily doses over several weeks
b) The fraction of radiation that is absorbed by the body
c) Dividing the patient into separate parts during treatment
d) The fraction of healthy tissue exposed to radiation

28. Which of the following is the purpose of using lead shielding in radiotherapy?

a) To prevent patient movement during treatment
b) To reduce unnecessary radiation exposure to healthy tissues
c) To increase the radiation dose to the tumor
d) To protect the tumor from radiation

29. The concept of “treatment planning” in radiotherapy includes:

a) Calculating the correct radiation dose for the tumor
b) Ensuring proper patient positioning
c) Using imaging to locate the tumor
d) All of the above

30. In radiotherapy, what does “tumor localization” mean?

a) Positioning the tumor for surgery
b) Using imaging techniques to accurately locate the tumor for radiation treatment
c) Measuring the tumor’s size
d) Treating the tumor with external radiation

31. Proton therapy is a type of radiation therapy that uses:

a) High-energy X-rays
b) High-energy protons
c) Gamma rays
d) Beta particles

32. The main purpose of treatment verification in radiotherapy is to:

a) Confirm the patient’s identity
b) Ensure that the tumor is targeted accurately
c) Increase the radiation dose
d) Prevent side effects

33. In radiotherapy, “imaging-guided radiotherapy” (IGRT) refers to:

a) Using imaging techniques to guide radiation delivery
b) Using a contrast agent to enhance imaging
c) Analyzing the tumor’s genetics
d) Performing surgery for tumor removal

34. The primary advantage of proton therapy over conventional radiotherapy is:

a) It uses lower doses of radiation
b) It targets tumors more precisely with minimal damage to surrounding tissues
c) It is less expensive
d) It requires no specialized equipment

35. The dose of radiation that is absorbed by the tumor is called the:

a) Prescription dose
b) Total dose
c) Targeted dose
d) Therapeutic dose

36. The maximum safe radiation dose to healthy tissues surrounding the tumor is calculated using:

a) The patient’s age
b) Imaging and radiation therapy planning software
c) The tumor’s size
d) The type of cancer

37. The concept of “volumetric modulated arc therapy” (VMAT) in radiotherapy is used to:

a) Deliver radiation in a rotating manner around the tumor
b) Prevent patient movement during treatment
c) Use only X-rays for radiation delivery
d) Treat tumors using gamma rays

38. The treatment technique where a patient is treated with radiation from multiple angles to minimize exposure to normal tissues is called:

a) Intensity-modulated radiotherapy (IMRT)
b) Stereotactic radiotherapy
c) 3D conformal radiotherapy
d) Brachytherapy

39. The main advantage of stereotactic radiotherapy is:

a) It uses higher doses of radiation in fewer sessions
b) It is less effective for deep tumors
c) It requires longer treatment durations
d) It is used only for cancers in the head and neck

40. Radiotherapy can cause skin irritation; this is most commonly managed by:

a) Using topical lotions and ointments
b) Using cold compresses
c) Giving oral medications
d) Avoiding any skin contact

41. The use of a high-energy electron beam in radiotherapy is most effective in treating:

a) Deep tumors
b) Tumors near the surface of the skin
c) Blood cancers
d) Tumors located in the brain

42. The most important step in radiotherapy treatment planning is:

a) The choice of radiation dose
b) The selection of radiotherapy technique
c) Accurate tumor localization and imaging
d) Patient education

43. In radiation therapy, the term “conformal radiotherapy” refers to:

a) A treatment method that delivers a uniform radiation dose to the tumor
b) The use of multiple radiation beams to conform to the tumor’s shape
c) The use of proton therapy
d) A new drug delivery method

44. Which of the following methods is used to treat surface tumors?

a) Electron beam therapy
b) Gamma knife therapy
c) Proton therapy
d) Stereotactic radiotherapy

45. The term “CT simulation” in radiotherapy refers to:

a) Using CT scans for precise treatment planning
b) Simulating radiation delivery on a model
c) Checking the tumor’s response to radiation
d) A form of imaging therapy

46. In radiation therapy, a “boost dose” refers to:

a) A higher radiation dose given to the tumor after initial treatment
b) A reduced radiation dose to surrounding tissues
c) The first dose of radiation
d) A combination of radiation and chemotherapy

47. In radiotherapy, “palliative treatment” is used to:

a) Cure the disease
b) Shrink tumors to relieve symptoms
c) Prevent side effects
d) Increase the tumor’s resistance to radiation

48. The process of delivering radiation treatment to the tumor while minimizing damage to surrounding tissues is called:

a) Radiation planning
b) Radiation protection
c) Radiation precision
d) Radiation optimization

49. Radiotherapy planning involves all of the following except:

a) Tumor localization
b) Dosimetry
c) Tumor excision
d) Treatment verification

50. The role of a radiation therapist is to:

a) Administer radiation treatments under the supervision of a radiation oncologist
b) Develop the radiotherapy treatment plan
c) Interpret radiology images
d) Perform surgery on tumors

Answer Key

1. b
2. a
3. c
4. a
5. b
6. a
7. c
8. b
9. b
10. c
11. b
12. b
13. b
14. d
15. b
16. b
17. c
18. d
19. c
20. d
21. a
22. a
23. c
24. c
25. b
26. c
27. a
28. b
29. d
30. b
31. b
32. b
33. a
34. b
35. b
36. b
37. a
38. a
39. a
40. a
41. b
42. c
43. b
44. a
45. a
46. a
47. b
48. c
49. c
50. a

These MCQs cover a broad range of topics in radiotherapy, suitable for the Diploma in Radiotherapy Technology license exam.

Dialysis Technology MCQs for NHPC Nepal – Diploma in Dialysis Technology License Exam

Here are 50 multiple-choice questions (MCQs) for the Diploma in Dialysis Technology License Examination (NHPC Nepal), focusing on various aspects of dialysis technology and related concepts, with an answer key at the end.

Table of Contents(toc)

1. The primary function of dialysis is to:

a) Replace kidney function
b) Treat infections
c) Remove excess red blood cells
d) Correct electrolyte imbalances

2. Hemodialysis involves the use of:

a) A machine and dialyzer to filter the blood
b) Medication to remove toxins
c) Fluid infusion through the veins
d) Oxygen therapy

3. The normal range for blood urea nitrogen (BUN) in dialysis patients is:

a) 7-20 mg/dL
b) 10-30 mg/dL
c) 20-60 mg/dL
d) 30-70 mg/dL

4. The common indication for initiating dialysis in a patient is:

a) Hyperkalemia
b) Hypotension
c) Hemolysis
d) Normal creatinine levels

5. In dialysis, the term ‘ultrafiltration’ refers to:

a) The removal of toxins
b) The movement of water across a semi-permeable membrane due to pressure
c) The addition of fluids to the bloodstream
d) The cleaning of blood using a chemical agent

6. The most commonly used dialysis machine is:

a) Peritoneal dialysis machine
b) Continuous renal replacement therapy machine
c) Hemodialysis machine
d) Fluid infusion pump

7. Which of the following is the primary function of the dialyzer in hemodialysis?

a) To filter the blood
b) To monitor vital signs
c) To infuse medication into the bloodstream
d) To prevent blood clotting

8. In peritoneal dialysis, the dialysate fluid is infused into:

a) The patient’s blood vessels
b) The peritoneal cavity
c) The lungs
d) The heart

9. Which of the following is a complication commonly associated with peritoneal dialysis?

a) Hypertension
b) Peritonitis
c) Hypotension
d) Hyperkalemia

10. The goal of dialysis in patients with end-stage renal disease (ESRD) is to:

a) Cure kidney failure
b) Maintain normal kidney function
c) Replace the function of the kidneys
d) Treat underlying kidney infections

11. The primary risk factor for kidney failure requiring dialysis is:

a) Age
b) Hypertension and diabetes
c) Genetic disorders
d) Physical inactivity

12. What is the most common site for dialysis access?

a) Jugular vein
b) Femoral artery
c) Arteriovenous fistula (AVF)
d) Subclavian vein

13. In hemodialysis, the anticoagulant most commonly used is:

a) Heparin
b) Warfarin
c) Aspirin
d) Clopidogrel

14. The main difference between hemodialysis and peritoneal dialysis is:

a) The dialysis fluid used
b) The type of membrane used for filtration
c) The method of dialysis
d) The duration of each session

15. Which of the following is a potential complication of hemodialysis?

a) Peritonitis
b) Hyperglycemia
c) Air embolism
d) Pulmonary edema

16. In hemodialysis, the ‘arterial line’ is used to:

a) Carry blood from the dialyzer to the body
b) Carry blood from the patient to the dialyzer
c) Monitor the blood pressure
d) Provide oxygen to the blood

17. The use of bicarbonate in dialysis is intended to:

a) Increase the pH of the blood
b) Remove waste products
c) Correct electrolyte imbalances
d) Prevent blood clotting

18. Dialysis patients are at risk for anemia due to:

a) Increased red blood cell production
b) Decreased erythropoietin production
c) High levels of iron
d) Excessive loss of blood during dialysis

19. In peritoneal dialysis, the fluid exchanges are typically performed:

a) Once a week
b) Every 6 hours
c) Every 24 hours
d) Every 2-3 hours

20. The primary function of erythropoiesis-stimulating agents (ESA) in dialysis patients is to:

a) Stimulate the production of red blood cells
b) Control blood pressure
c) Remove excess water
d) Replace lost electrolytes

21. The main advantage of peritoneal dialysis over hemodialysis is:

a) Lower cost
b) Greater independence for the patient
c) Easier to set up
d) Fewer complications

22. The most common type of dialysis access is:

a) Hemodialysis catheter
b) Arteriovenous fistula (AVF)
c) Peritoneal dialysis catheter
d) Arteriovenous graft (AVG)

23. The term “dialysis dose” refers to:

a) The duration of dialysis treatment
b) The volume of blood filtered per minute
c) The amount of solute removed during dialysis
d) The amount of fluid used for ultrafiltration

24. What is the primary function of dialysis in the treatment of kidney failure?

a) To replace kidney function by removing waste products and excess fluids
b) To prevent infections
c) To improve lung function
d) To increase blood pressure

25. Which of the following laboratory tests is used to monitor the adequacy of dialysis?

a) Urine culture
b) BUN and creatinine levels
c) Serum glucose
d) Complete blood count (CBC)

26. Which of the following factors can affect the efficiency of hemodialysis?

a) Dialysis machine settings
b) Blood flow rate
c) Dialysate flow rate
d) All of the above

27. The most common vascular access for hemodialysis is:

a) A dialysis fistula
b) A dialysis catheter
c) An arteriovenous graft
d) A peritoneal dialysis catheter

28. During dialysis, the dialyzer filter removes:

a) Waste products, toxins, and excess fluids
b) Oxygen
c) Electrolytes only
d) Red blood cells

29. The process of hemodialysis is typically performed for how long during each session?

a) 1-2 hours
b) 4-6 hours
c) 8-10 hours
d) 12-14 hours

30. In peritoneal dialysis, the dialysate fluid is typically composed of:

a) Saline solution with glucose
b) Dialysis solution with proteins
c) Sodium bicarbonate solution
d) Glucose and urea solution

31. The “Kt/V” is a measure used to evaluate:

a) Dialysis adequacy
b) Blood volume
c) Glomerular filtration rate
d) Nutritional status

32. The primary concern for a dialysis patient post-treatment is:

a) Hyperkalemia
b) Hypotension
c) Hypervolemia
d) Dehydration

33. Which of the following is a potential complication of vascular access for dialysis?

a) Infection
b) Hypotension
c) Peritonitis
d) Hyperglycemia

34. Which of the following factors should be monitored closely during dialysis?

a) Body temperature
b) Blood pressure
c) Blood glucose levels
d) All of the above

35. A complication associated with long-term dialysis is:

a) Dialysis disequilibrium syndrome
b) Peritoneal fibrosis
c) Iron overload
d) Hyperthyroidism

36. Which of the following conditions can lead to the failure of a dialysis access?

a) Infection
b) Thrombosis
c) Aneurysm formation
d) All of the above

37. Dialysate fluid in peritoneal dialysis typically has a higher concentration of glucose to:

a) Facilitate fluid removal
b) Increase the pH of the blood
c) Promote the removal of potassium
d) Decrease the risk of infection

38. The term ‘clearance’ in dialysis refers to:

a) The amount of fluid removed during treatment
b) The effectiveness of the dialyzer in removing waste products
c) The efficiency of the blood pump
d) The rate of dialysate fluid infusion

39. The most common complication of hemodialysis is:

a) Hypotension
b) Hemolysis
c) Infection
d) Seizures

40. Which of the following medications is commonly used to manage hypertension in dialysis patients?

a) ACE inhibitors
b) Diuretics
c) Calcium channel blockers
d) Beta blockers

41. A patient undergoing dialysis may experience “dialysis disequilibrium syndrome” characterized by:

a) Severe hypotension
b) Nausea, vomiting, and headache
c) Fluid overload
d) Fever and chills

42. The most common type of dialysis used for children is:

a) Peritoneal dialysis
b) Hemodialysis
c) Continuous renal replacement therapy (CRRT)
d) Kidney transplant

43. Dialysis patients are often given erythropoiesis-stimulating agents (ESA) to:

a) Prevent anemia
b) Stimulate white blood cell production
c) Control blood sugar
d) Treat infection

44. The main advantage of hemodialysis over peritoneal dialysis is:

a) Easier to perform at home
b) Requires less medical supervision
c) More efficient removal of waste products
d) Requires no surgical access

45. The primary purpose of the dialysis machine is to:

a) Clean the blood
b) Remove oxygen
c) Reduce body weight
d) Increase blood pressure

46. The dialysis catheter is typically inserted into which of the following veins?

a) Jugular vein
b) Femoral vein
c) Subclavian vein
d) All of the above

47. The most common complication of peritoneal dialysis is:

a) Hypertension
b) Peritonitis
c) Hyperkalemia
d) Hyperglycemia

48. The treatment of dialysis patients often requires the management of:

a) Electrolyte imbalances
b) Nutritional deficiencies
c) Infections
d) All of the above

49. The function of the ‘dialysate’ is to:

a) Replace fluids in the patient’s body
b) Facilitate the removal of toxins
c) Deliver oxygen to the blood
d) Maintain blood pressure

50. The most appropriate vascular access for long-term dialysis in adults is:

a) A tunneled dialysis catheter
b) A peritoneal dialysis catheter
c) An arteriovenous fistula (AVF)
d) An arteriovenous graft (AVG)

Answer Key

1. a
2. c
3. a
4. a
5. b
6. c
7. a
8. b
9. b
10. c
11. b
12. c
13. a
14. c
15. a
16. b
17. a
18. b
19. b
20. a
21. b
22. b
23. c
24. a
25. b
26. d
27. b
28. a
29. b
30. a
31. a
32. b
33. a
34. d
35. b
36. d
37. a
38. b
39. a
40. a
41. b
42. a
43. a
44. c
45. a
46. d
47. b
48. d
49. b
50. c

These MCQs cover essential topics in dialysis technology, suitable for the Diploma in Dialysis Technology License Exam.

Anaesthesia MCQs for NHPC Nepal – Diploma in Anaesthesia License Exam 2025

Here are 50 multiple-choice questions (MCQs) for the Diploma in Anaesthesia License Examination (NHPC Nepal), covering essential topics related to Anaesthesia, with an answer key at the end.

1. The primary function of anaesthesia is to:

a) Induce muscle relaxation
b) Provide pain relief
c) Maintain consciousness
d) Prevent infection

2. Which of the following is the most common side effect of general anaesthesia?

a) Nausea and vomiting
b) Allergic reactions
c) Hypotension
d) Tachycardia

3. The minimum alveolar concentration (MAC) of an inhaled anaesthetic refers to:

a) The concentration at which 50% of patients do not respond to a surgical stimulus
b) The time required for the anaesthetic to be eliminated from the body
c) The level of anaesthesia needed for conscious sedation
d) The amount of oxygen required during anaesthesia

4. Which of the following is a contraindication for regional anaesthesia?

a) Hypovolemia
b) Obesity
c) History of seizures
d) All of the above

5. The most common anaesthetic agent used in rapid sequence induction (RSI) is:

a) Propofol
b) Ketamine
c) Etomidate
d) Thiopental

6. Which of the following is the most common complication of regional anaesthesia?

a) Hypotension
b) Nerve injury
c) Cardiac arrhythmias
d) Postoperative infection

7. The main mechanism of action of volatile anaesthetics is:

a) Inhibition of neurotransmitter release
b) Inhibition of sodium channels
c) Depression of the central nervous system
d) Blocking acetylcholine receptors

8. Which of the following is the safest anaesthetic agent for patients with asthma?

a) Nitrous oxide
b) Sevoflurane
c) Isoflurane
d) Desflurane

9. The most common site for administering an epidural anaesthesia is:

a) L3-L4 intervertebral space
b) L1-L2 intervertebral space
c) T12-L1 intervertebral space
d) T8-T9 intervertebral space

10. Which of the following is used to reverse the effects of non-depolarizing muscle relaxants?

a) Neostigmine
b) Atropine
c) Sugammadex
d) Naloxone

11. Inhaled anaesthetics are primarily eliminated through:

a) The liver
b) The kidneys
c) The lungs
d) The gastrointestinal tract

12. Which of the following is a common feature of malignant hyperthermia?

a) Bradycardia
b) Hyperkalemia
c) Hypothermia
d) Hypotension

13. What is the action of nitrous oxide in anaesthesia?

a) It provides muscle relaxation
b) It is a potent analgesic
c) It increases the depth of anaesthesia
d) It induces unconsciousness

14. The ideal anaesthetic for day surgery should have:

a) A long half-life
b) A quick onset and recovery time
c) A high solubility in blood
d) A low potency

15. The most common cause of hypotension during anaesthesia is:

a) Hypovolemia
b) Allergic reaction
c) Hypercapnia
d) Hypertension

16. Which of the following is used to monitor the depth of anaesthesia?

a) Electrocardiogram (ECG)
b) Bispectral index (BIS)
c) Pulse oximeter
d) Capnography

17. Which of the following is a characteristic of local anaesthetics?

a) They act by inhibiting dopamine receptors
b) They provide both motor and sensory blockade
c) They cause vasodilation
d) They act by inhibiting sodium channels

18. The risk of aspiration during anaesthesia is reduced by:

a) Preoperative fasting
b) Using high doses of muscle relaxants
c) Inducing anaesthesia slowly
d) Administering intravenous fluids

19. Which of the following is the most common type of anaesthesia used for caesarean section?

a) General anaesthesia
b) Spinal anaesthesia
c) Epidural anaesthesia
d) Local anaesthesia

20. Which of the following drugs is used to treat post-operative nausea and vomiting (PONV)?

a) Dexamethasone
b) Ondansetron
c) Naloxone
d) Atropine

21. The most common cause of bradycardia during anaesthesia is:

a) Hypoxia
b) Hypotension
c) Vagal stimulation
d) Hypothermia

22. The action of succinylcholine as a depolarizing muscle relaxant is primarily achieved through:

a) Inhibition of acetylcholine release
b) Blocking acetylcholine receptors
c) Prolonged depolarization of the motor end plate
d) Competitive inhibition of calcium channels

23. What is the primary use of propofol in anaesthesia?

a) Induction and maintenance of general anaesthesia
b) Muscle relaxation
c) Pain relief
d) Sedation for regional anaesthesia

24. Which of the following is the most important factor in determining the choice of anaesthesia in a patient with a high risk of aspiration?

a) Duration of surgery
b) Type of surgery
c) Patient’s position during surgery
d) Airway management and protection

25. The use of nitrous oxide during anaesthesia is contraindicated in which of the following conditions?

a) Pulmonary hypertension
b) Closed head injury
c) Gastric reflux
d) Hyperthyroidism

26. Which of the following is a feature of regional anaesthesia?

a) Acts on the central nervous system
b) Provides unconsciousness
c) Blocks pain in specific areas of the body
d) Requires intubation

27. The action of benzodiazepines in anaesthesia is to:

a) Cause amnesia
b) Induce muscle relaxation
c) Increase pain perception
d) Block nerve conduction

28. Which of the following statements is true about epidural anaesthesia?

a) It is always combined with general anaesthesia
b) It blocks pain transmission in the lower half of the body
c) It is the preferred anaesthesia for craniotomy
d) It is always associated with high-risk complications

29. Which of the following is an indication for the use of ketamine in anaesthesia?

a) Maintenance of anaesthesia in high-risk patients
b) Providing sedation during short procedures
c) Inducing anaesthesia in paediatric patients
d) Treating malignant hyperthermia

30. Which of the following is the most appropriate anaesthetic agent for a patient with a history of malignant hyperthermia?

a) Desflurane
b) Isoflurane
c) Sevoflurane
d) Propofol

31. Which of the following is used to treat malignant hyperthermia?

a) Dantrolene
b) Epinephrine
c) Sodium bicarbonate
d) Magnesium sulfate

32. What is the primary mechanism of action of volatile anaesthetics?

a) Inhibition of GABA receptors
b) Enhancement of excitatory neurotransmitter release
c) Blocking sodium channels
d) Hyperpolarization of nerve membranes

33. Which of the following agents is known for its rapid onset and short duration of action in general anaesthesia?

a) Thiopental
b) Propofol
c) Ketamine
d) Etomidate

34. What is the major complication of spinal anaesthesia?

a) Postdural puncture headache
b) Nerve injury
c) Systemic toxicity
d) Bradycardia

35. Which of the following agents is a muscle relaxant that acts by inhibiting acetylcholine release?

a) Succinylcholine
b) Vecuronium
c) Pancuronium
d) Atracurium

36. Which of the following is a side effect of the use of nitrous oxide?

a) Nausea
b) Seizures
c) Hyperthermia
d) Increased blood pressure

37. What is the role of pre-oxygenation before anaesthesia induction?

a) To reduce the risk of aspiration
b) To increase oxygen reserves and extend safe apnea time
c) To prevent allergic reactions
d) To provide sedation

38. Which of the following anaesthetic agents is contraindicated in patients with a history of epilepsy?

a) Propofol
b) Ketamine
c) Isoflurane
d) Nitrous oxide

39. The most common method used to maintain anaesthesia during a long surgical procedure is:

a) Intravenous anaesthetic agents
b) Volatile inhaled anaesthetics
c) Nitrous oxide
d) Muscle relaxants

40. The common complication of the use of long-term nitrous oxide is:

a) Vitamin B12 deficiency
b) Hypercalcemia
c) Increased risk of infection
d) Dehydration

41. What is the typical concentration of isoflurane used during general anaesthesia?

a) 0.5-1%
b) 1-2%
c) 3-5%
d) 5-7%

42. Which of the following is a common side effect of general anaesthesia in elderly patients?

a) Decreased blood pressure
b) Increased heart rate
c) Hyperthermia
d) Increased sedation

43. What is the primary purpose of a laryngeal mask airway (LMA)?

a) To provide a secure airway during general anaesthesia
b) To induce anaesthesia
c) To maintain oxygenation in patients with bronchospasm
d) To facilitate ventilation during regional anaesthesia

44. Which of the following is an effect of the use of atropine in anaesthesia?

a) Decreased heart rate
b) Increased heart rate
c) Hypotension
d) Respiratory depression

45. Which of the following is the most common complication following the use of propofol for anaesthesia?

a) Hypotension
b) Hyperkalemia
c) Bradycardia
d) Tachycardia

46. Which of the following is the most commonly used anaesthetic for paediatric patients?

a) Ketamine
b) Sevoflurane
c) Isoflurane
d) Desflurane

47. The main function of the pre-anaesthesia assessment is to:

a) Determine the anaesthetic agent to be used
b) Assess the risk factors and plan the anaesthesia accordingly
c) Administer the necessary medication
d) Prepare the patient for surgery

48. What is the primary role of the anaesthesiologist during surgery?

a) To perform the surgery
b) To monitor and maintain the patient’s vital functions
c) To assist with postoperative care
d) To provide pain management after surgery

49. What is the best method to prevent anaphylaxis during anaesthesia?

a) Preoperative testing for allergies
b) Avoiding the use of muscle relaxants
c) Administering antihistamines during surgery
d) Careful selection of anaesthetic agents

50. Which of the following agents is the most appropriate for short outpatient procedures due to its rapid onset and short duration?

a) Propofol
b) Ketamine
c) Sevoflurane
d) Isoflurane

Answer Key

1. b
2. a
3. a
4. d
5. a
6. b
7. c
8. b
9. a
10. c
11. c
12. b
13. b
14. b
15. a
16. b
17. d
18. a
19. b
20. b
21. c
22. c
23. a
24. d
25. b
26. c
27. a
28. b
29. c
30. d
31. a
32. c
33. b
34. a
35. b
36. a
37. b
38. b
39. b
40. a
41. b
42. a
43. a
44. b
45. a
46. b
47. b
48. b
49. a
50. a

These questions can help assess the understanding of fundamental concepts in anaesthesia, suitable for the Diploma in Anaesthesia License Exam.

Burns & Plastic Surgery and Gynecology Physiotherapy MCQs for NHPC Nepal – BPT License Exam

Here are 25 multiple-choice questions (MCQs) on Burns and Plastic Surgery Physiotherapy and Gynecology Physiotherapy for the BPT Physiotherapy License Examination (NHPC Nepal), with an answer key at the end.

Burns & Plastic Surgery Physiotherapy (25 MCQs)

1. Which of the following is the primary goal in the acute phase of burn rehabilitation?

a) Skin grafting
b) Pain management
c) Preventing infection
d) Restoring joint mobility and function

2. The most common complications in patients with deep partial-thickness burns are:

a) Wound infection and hypertrophic scarring
b) Hypothermia and hypovolemia
c) Respiratory failure and organ dysfunction
d) Contractures and joint deformities

3. The primary focus of physiotherapy during the post-burn rehabilitation phase is to:

a) Promote early ambulation
b) Prevent deformities and contractures
c) Improve wound healing
d) Manage edema

4. What is the most common type of skin graft used in burn surgery?

a) Full-thickness skin graft
b) Split-thickness skin graft
c) Allograft
d) Xenograft

5. The role of physiotherapy in the acute phase of burn treatment includes:

a) Debridement of necrotic tissue
b) Pain management and early mobilization
c) Skin grafting
d) Emotional counseling

6. The best time to initiate physiotherapy after a burn injury is:

a) 24-48 hours after injury
b) 1 week post-burn
c) After the wound is fully healed
d) As soon as possible after stabilization

7. In burn rehabilitation, what is the purpose of splinting?

a) To prevent infection
b) To reduce scarring
c) To maintain joint position and prevent contractures
d) To reduce pain

8. What is the preferred position for splinting of the hand in burn rehabilitation?

a) Claw position
b) Functional position
c) Extended position
d) Flexed position

9. Which of the following interventions is effective for hypertrophic scarring in burn patients?

a) Pressure garments
b) Heat therapy
c) Ultrasound therapy
d) Electrical stimulation

10. A common complication of facial burns is:

a) Contractures of the fingers
b) Limitation in neck extension
c) Vision impairment
d) Hearing loss

11. Which of the following is a major concern during the acute phase of burn care?

a) Pain management
b) Maintaining skin elasticity
c) Preventing scarring
d) Joint deformities

12. What is the key role of physiotherapy in post-operative burn rehabilitation?

a) Wound care
b) Muscle strengthening
c) Preventing contractures and deformities
d) Emotional counseling

13. Which of the following is used to assess the severity of burns?

a) Apgar score
b) Rule of nines
c) Glasgow Coma Scale
d) Burn index

14. A key factor in burn wound healing is:

a) Age of the patient
b) Nutrition and hydration
c) Psychological support
d) All of the above

15. Which of the following is a common complication of burn injury in children?

a) Osteoporosis
b) Growth plate abnormalities
c) Fractures
d) Sarcopenia

Gynecology Physiotherapy (25 MCQs)

16. Which of the following is a major goal of physiotherapy in managing pelvic floor dysfunction?

a) Strengthening core muscles
b) Managing urinary incontinence and pelvic organ prolapse
c) Reducing lower back pain
d) Improving cardiovascular fitness

17. Kegel exercises are primarily used for:

a) Strengthening the pelvic floor muscles
b) Increasing lumbar spine mobility
c) Reducing abdominal obesity
d) Improving shoulder flexibility

18. A patient with pelvic organ prolapse would most likely benefit from which physiotherapy intervention?

a) Core strengthening exercises
b) Pelvic floor exercises
c) Knee extension exercises
d) Stretching of the lower back

19. Which of the following is a primary symptom of pelvic floor dysfunction?

a) Painful menstruation
b) Urinary incontinence
c) Lower abdominal pain
d) Coughing

20. Which of the following techniques is used in physiotherapy to treat urinary incontinence?

a) Trigger point release
b) Pelvic floor muscle training
c) Deep tissue massage
d) Transcutaneous electrical nerve stimulation (TENS)

21. During the postnatal period, physiotherapy focuses on:

a) Strengthening the pelvic floor muscles
b) Treating diastasis recti
c) Improving posture and reducing back pain
d) All of the above

22. What is the primary focus of physiotherapy in pre-natal care?

a) Promoting fetal development
b) Strengthening pelvic floor muscles
c) Alleviating pregnancy-related discomfort and pain
d) Preparing for labor and delivery

23. Which of the following is an effective intervention for diastasis recti after pregnancy?

a) Deep abdominal muscle activation exercises
b) Stretching of the abdominal muscles
c) Cardiovascular exercises
d) Weight-bearing exercises

24. The most common post-surgical complication following a hysterectomy is:

a) Pelvic organ prolapse
b) Abdominal muscle weakness
c) Urinary incontinence
d) Sciatica

25. What is a common benefit of prenatal physiotherapy?

a) Reducing the risk of postnatal depression
b) Preventing urinary tract infections
c) Improving circulation and muscle strength
d) All of the above

26. In post-menopausal women, physiotherapy interventions may include:

a) Hormone replacement therapy
b) Strengthening the pelvic floor muscles
c) Weight loss interventions
d) All of the above

27. Which is the most effective method of treating stress urinary incontinence in women?

a) Bladder training
b) Pelvic floor muscle exercises
c) Biofeedback therapy
d) Surgery

28. What is a common physiotherapy treatment for constipation in women?

a) Pelvic floor exercises
b) Transcutaneous electrical nerve stimulation (TENS)
c) Abdominal massage and mobilization
d) Stretching exercises

29. The recommended physiotherapy intervention for treating lower back pain in pregnancy is:

a) Spinal manipulation
b) Strengthening exercises for the core and pelvic muscles
c) Electrical muscle stimulation
d) Only rest

30. Post-partum, physiotherapy for abdominal muscle separation (diastasis recti) includes:

a) Massage therapy
b) Core muscle strengthening exercises
c) Aerobic exercises
d) Heat therapy

Answer Key

Burns & Plastic Surgery Physiotherapy

1. d Restoring joint mobility and function
2. a Wound infection and hypertrophic scarring
3. b Prevent deformities and contractures
4. b Split-thickness skin graft
5. b Pain management and early mobilization
6. d As soon as possible after stabilization
7. c To maintain joint position and prevent contractures
8. b Functional position
9. a Pressure garments
10. b Limitation in neck extension
11. a Pain management
12. c Preventing contractures and deformities
13. b Rule of nines
14. d All of the above
15. b Growth plate abnormalities

Gynecology Physiotherapy

16. b Managing urinary incontinence and pelvic organ prolapse
17. a Strengthening the pelvic floor muscles
18. b Pelvic floor exercises
19. b Urinary incontinence
20. b Pelvic floor muscle training
21. d All of the above
22. c Alleviating pregnancy-related discomfort and pain
23. a Deep abdominal muscle activation exercises
24. b Abdominal muscle weakness
25. d All of the above
26. d All of the above
27. b Pelvic floor muscle exercises
28. c Abdominal massage and mobilization
29. b Strengthening exercises for the core and pelvic muscles
30. b Core muscle strengthening exercises

Summary

This 50-MCQ set covers essential topics in Burns and Plastic Surgery Physiotherapy and Gynecology Physiotherapy, including post-burn rehabilitation, pelvic floor dysfunction, postnatal care, and prenatal physiotherapy for the NHPC Nepal BPT licensing exam.

How to Easily Find Your Own Number in NTC and Ncell in 2025

Table of contents(toc)

NTC and ncell

Introduction:

We have all had that awkward moment when someone asks for our phone number
and we do not know what to say. Whether you use NTC (Nepal Telecom) or
Ncell, forgetting your own phone number can be humiliating. However, do not
worry! In this article, we will walk you through the simple steps of finding
your own phone number on both the NTC and Ncell networks. Let us get
started!

Following questions have been frequently asked:

1. how to check ntc number
2. ntc number check
3. how to see ntc number
4. how to know ntc number
5. how to check ntc number owner name
6. ntc number check code
7. check ntc number
8. how to look ntc number
9. how to find ntc number
10. how to check my ntc number

NTC

Finding Your Own Number on NTC; how to see your own number in ntc:

Method 1: Dialing a USSD Code, how to check ntc number

1. Open your phone’s dialer.
2. Dial *9#
   and press the call button.
3. Almost instantly, you’ll receive a message displaying your mobile
   number.

Method 2: Sending an SMS, ntc number check

1. Open your phone’s messaging app.
2. Create a new SMS message.
3. Type “NTC” or “my number” (without quotes) in the message body.
4. Send the message to 1415.
5. Within a few moments, you’ll receive an automated response with your NTC
   mobile number.

Finding Your Own Number on Ncell; how to see your own number in ncell:

The commonly asked NCell Number questions include:

1. how to check ncell number
2. ncell number check
3. how to know ncell number
4. how to see ncell number
5. how to check ncell number owner
6. how to check ncell number owner name
7. ncell number check code
8. ncell number
9. how to know ncell number owner
10. check ncell number
11. how to know your ncell number
12. how to check own ncell number
13. how to look ncell number
14. ncell number tracker
15. ncell number starts with
16. how to find ncell number
17. how to know my ncell number
18. how to check my ncell number
19. how to see own ncell number
20. how to recharge other ncell number

NCell logo

Method 1: Dialing a USSD Code

1. Open your phone’s dialer.
2. Dial *903#
   and press the call button.
3. You’ll receive a message showing your Ncell mobile number.

Method 2: Calling Customer Care

1. Dial 9005 from your Ncell number.
2. Follow the automated instructions to talk to a customer care
   representative.
3. Provide the necessary details for verification.
4. The customer care agent will share your Ncell mobile number with
   you.

Pro Tips on how to see your own number:

1. Save Your Number: Once you have found your phone number, save it in your
   phone’s contacts list with a name that is easily remembered (e.g., My
   Number) to avoid future confusion.

Conclusion:

Forgetting your own mobile number is common, but with the simple methods in this article, you can easily retrieve it, whether you use NTC or Ncell. The USSD codes and SMS options are quick and convenient, allowing you to access your number in just a few seconds. Remember to save your number in your phonebook for easy reference, and always double-check your SIM card and documents to avoid any potential issues.

Knowing your own number ensures smooth communication and prevents awkward situations when someone asks for your contact information. Now that you’ve learned how to find your number on NTC and Ncell, you can confidently share your contact details whenever needed. Happy dialing!

ntc ncell

Pediatrics & Geriatrics Physiotherapy MCQs for NHPC Nepal – BPT License Exam

Here are 50 multiple-choice questions (MCQs) on Pediatrics and Geriatrics Physiotherapy for the BPT Physiotherapy License Examination (NHPC Nepal), with an answer key at the end.

Table of Contents(toc)

Pediatric Physiotherapy (25 MCQs)

1. What is the most common type of cerebral palsy?

a) Dyskinetic CP
b) Spastic CP
c) Ataxic CP
d) Mixed CP

2. The Apgar score is used to assess:

a) Birth weight
b) Muscle tone and reflexes at birth
c) Developmental milestones
d) Neonatal feeding ability

3. Which reflex persists the longest in infants?

a) Moro reflex
b) Asymmetrical tonic neck reflex (ATNR)
c) Parachute reflex
d) Palmar grasp reflex

4. What is the most common congenital foot deformity in children?

a) Metatarsus adductus
b) Talipes equinovarus
c) Pes planus
d) Genu valgum

5. Duchenne muscular dystrophy is characterized by:

a) Proximal muscle weakness
b) Hyperreflexia
c) Spasticity
d) Early-onset hypotonia

6. What is Gower’s sign?

a) An indicator of spasticity
b) A sign of proximal muscle weakness
c) A measure of balance
d) A test for scoliosis

7. What is the most effective early intervention for developmental delay?

a) Passive range of motion exercises
b) Family-centered therapy
c) Only pharmacological treatment
d) Serial casting

8. Which is a characteristic feature of spastic cerebral palsy?

a) Hypotonia
b) Hypertonia and hyperreflexia
c) Fluctuating muscle tone
d) Tremors

9. The best intervention for plagiocephaly in infants is:

a) Surgery
b) Cranial helmet therapy and positioning techniques
c) Strength training
d) Bracing

10. Which of the following is a red flag in pediatric development?

a) Rolling over at 4 months
b) Not sitting unsupported by 9 months
c) Babbling at 6 months
d) Walking by 12 months

11. What is the primary focus of physiotherapy for children with spina bifida?

a) Strength training
b) Functional mobility and preventing contractures
c) Respiratory therapy
d) Gait training only

12. Which of the following is true regarding idiopathic scoliosis in children?

a) It is always symptomatic
b) It progresses most rapidly during growth spurts
c) It always requires surgery
d) It is self-limiting

13. The normal age for independent walking is:

a) 6-9 months
b) 10-15 months
c) 16-20 months
d) 21-24 months

14. Which test is used to assess spasticity in children with CP?

a) Modified Ashworth Scale
b) Berg Balance Scale
c) Mini-Mental State Exam
d) Apgar Score

15. The main cause of Erb’s palsy in newborns is:

a) Genetic mutation
b) Birth trauma affecting the brachial plexus
c) Viral infection
d) Neuromuscular disease

Geriatric Physiotherapy (25 MCQs)

16. The most common cause of falls in the elderly is:

a) Poor nutrition
b) Impaired balance and muscle weakness
c) Dehydration
d) Cognitive function decline

17. Which condition is characterized by progressive loss of bone density?

a) Osteoarthritis
b) Osteoporosis
c) Rheumatoid arthritis
d) Sarcopenia

18. The Berg Balance Scale is used to assess:

a) Gait speed
b) Fall risk
c) Muscle strength
d) Cognitive function

19. Which type of exercise is most beneficial for preventing osteoporosis in older adults?

a) Swimming
b) Weight-bearing exercises
c) Cycling
d) Yoga

20. The most common type of arthritis in older adults is:

a) Rheumatoid arthritis
b) Gouty arthritis
c) Osteoarthritis
d) Psoriatic arthritis

21. What is the primary goal of physiotherapy in Parkinson’s disease?

a) Increase dopamine levels
b) Improve balance and movement coordination
c) Reduce muscle atrophy
d) Prevent cardiac complications

22. The Timed Up and Go (TUG) test primarily assesses:

a) Muscle endurance
b) Fall risk and functional mobility
c) Spasticity
d) Joint range of motion

23. A common postural abnormality in the elderly due to osteoporosis is:

a) Scoliosis
b) Lordosis
c) Kyphosis
d) Flat back

24. Sarcopenia is defined as:

a) Age-related loss of muscle mass and strength
b) Joint degeneration
c) Cognitive decline
d) Increased fat accumulation

25. What is the most effective strategy for preventing frailty in the elderly?

a) High-calorie diet
b) Regular resistance and endurance training
c) Complete bed rest
d) Avoiding all physical activity

Answer Key

Pediatric Physiotherapy

1. b Spastic CP
2. b Muscle tone and reflexes at birth
3. c Parachute reflex
4. b Talipes equinovarus
5. a Proximal muscle weakness
6. b A sign of proximal muscle weakness
7. b Family-centered therapy
8. b Hypertonia and hyperreflexia
9. b Cranial helmet therapy and positioning techniques
10. b Not sitting unsupported by 9 months
11. b Functional mobility and preventing contractures
12. b It progresses most rapidly during growth spurts
13. b 10-15 months
14. a Modified Ashworth Scale
15. b Birth trauma affecting the brachial plexus

Geriatric Physiotherapy

16. b Impaired balance and muscle weakness
17. b Osteoporosis
18. b Fall risk
19. b Weight-bearing exercises
20. c Osteoarthritis
21. b Improve balance and movement coordination
22. b Fall risk and functional mobility
23. c Kyphosis
24. a Age-related loss of muscle mass and strength
25. b Regular resistance and endurance training

Summary

This 50-MCQ set covers essential topics in pediatric and geriatric physiotherapy, including developmental disorders, muscle tone abnormalities, fall prevention, osteoarthritis, osteoporosis, and exercise interventions for NHPC Nepal BPT licensing exam.