(Part 2) Exercise Therapy MCQs for NHPC Nepal – BPT License Exam 2025

Exercise Therapy MCQs for NHPC Nepal – BPT License Exam (Part 2)

Table of Contents(toc)

Here are 25 additional MCQs on Exercise Therapy for the BPT Physiotherapy License Examination (NHPC Nepal) with an answer key at the end.


Exercise Therapy MCQs (Part 2)

26. Which of the following is an example of a closed kinetic chain exercise?

a) Leg press
b) Leg curl
c) Hamstring curl
d) Seated knee extension

27. Which of the following is the correct definition of agility?

a) The ability to change position quickly while maintaining control
b) The maximum force a muscle can generate
c) The total work done in a given time
d) The ability to sustain prolonged activity

28. The term “isokinetic exercise” refers to:

a) Constant speed with variable resistance
b) Constant resistance with variable speed
c) No movement at the joint
d) Explosive movement with maximum force

29. Which of the following techniques is most suitable for improving proprioception after an ankle sprain?

a) Seated calf raises
b) Open-chain resistance training
c) Balance board exercises
d) Isometric contractions

30. Which of the following is the most common muscle affected in rotator cuff injuries?

a) Subscapularis
b) Teres major
c) Supraspinatus
d) Rhomboids

31. What is the primary benefit of eccentric training?

a) Increased flexibility
b) Reduced injury risk
c) Enhanced concentric strength
d) Increased muscle power

32. Which of the following muscles is primarily targeted in bridging exercises?

a) Quadriceps
b) Hamstrings
c) Gluteus maximus
d) Tibialis anterior

33. What is the main purpose of neuromuscular electrical stimulation (NMES)?

a) To decrease joint stiffness
b) To improve sensory input
c) To strengthen weakened muscles
d) To increase aerobic endurance

34. The Thomas Test is used to assess:

a) Knee joint stability
b) Hip flexor tightness
c) Ankle dorsiflexion strength
d) Shoulder range of motion

35. Which exercise is most beneficial for a patient with lumbar spinal stenosis?

a) Extension-based exercises
b) Flexion-based exercises
c) Ballistic movements
d) Isokinetic training

36. What is the ideal duration of static stretching to achieve optimal flexibility gains?

a) 5–10 seconds
b) 10–15 seconds
c) 20–30 seconds
d) 45–60 seconds

37. The Borg Rating of Perceived Exertion (RPE) scale is used to measure:

a) Heart rate
b) Perceived effort during exercise
c) Muscle strength
d) Respiratory rate

38. Which of the following conditions benefits most from aquatic therapy?

a) Osteoarthritis
b) Acute fractures
c) Compartment syndrome
d) Fresh ligament injuries

39. In proprioceptive neuromuscular facilitation (PNF) stretching, the “hold-relax” technique involves:

a) Passive stretching followed by isometric contraction
b) Passive stretching only
c) Bouncing movements
d) Rapid shortening of the muscle

40. Which of the following is the correct breathing pattern during resistance training?

a) Inhale during exertion, exhale during relaxation
b) Exhale during exertion, inhale during relaxation
c) Hold breath during maximal exertion
d) Breathe rapidly throughout the movement

41. Which exercise is best suited for improving postural stability in an elderly patient?

a) Seated knee extensions
b) Single-leg stance on a foam pad
c) Bicep curls with dumbbells
d) Bench press

42. What is the recommended weekly frequency for resistance training in older adults?

a) 1 day per week
b) 2–3 days per week
c) 5–6 days per week
d) 7 days per week

43. Which of the following is the best exercise for strengthening the serratus anterior muscle?

a) Shoulder shrugs
b) Scapular push-ups
c) Lat pulldown
d) Biceps curls

44. In gait training, the swing phase consists of which percentage of the gait cycle?

a) 20%
b) 30%
c) 40%
d) 60%

45. Which training method is most effective for improving muscular endurance?

a) High weight, low repetitions
b) Low weight, high repetitions
c) Plyometric training
d) Isometric holds

46. Which type of training is best suited for improving reaction time?

a) Isometric training
b) Explosive plyometrics
c) Resistance band exercises
d) Static stretching

47. Which of the following is an absolute contraindication to exercise therapy?

a) Mild hypertension
b) Controlled diabetes
c) Unstable angina
d) Low back pain

48. What is the best method to prevent delayed onset muscle soreness (DOMS) after exercise?

a) Static stretching before exercise
b) Active cool-down
c) Holding breath during resistance training
d) Drinking excessive water before workouts

49. The ability of a muscle to return to its original length after stretching is known as:

a) Extensibility
b) Elasticity
c) Contractility
d) Plasticity

50. What is the primary purpose of the sit-to-stand test?

a) Assess upper limb strength
b) Evaluate lower limb functional strength
c) Measure static balance
d) Assess flexibility


Answer Key (Part 2)

  1. a) Leg press
  2. a) The ability to change position quickly while maintaining control
  3. a) Constant speed with variable resistance
  4. c) Balance board exercises
  5. c) Supraspinatus
  6. d) Increased muscle power
  7. c) Gluteus maximus
  8. c) To strengthen weakened muscles
  9. b) Hip flexor tightness
  10. b) Flexion-based exercises
  11. c) 20–30 seconds
  12. b) Perceived effort during exercise
  13. a) Osteoarthritis
  14. a) Passive stretching followed by isometric contraction
  15. b) Exhale during exertion, inhale during relaxation
  16. b) Single-leg stance on a foam pad
  17. b) 2–3 days per week
  18. b) Scapular push-ups
  19. c) 40%
  20. b) Low weight, high repetitions
  21. b) Explosive plyometrics
  22. c) Unstable angina
  23. b) Active cool-down
  24. b) Elasticity
  25. b) Evaluate lower limb functional strength

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