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Multiple choice questions series 5 : Surgery MCQ for HA CMA ANM 2024
MCQ for medical students and nhpc license examination preparation 5
Here I have prepared 30 MCQs for your practice and we can discuss the
questions in the class or sparately.
Introduction
paramedical exams as well.
contact me.
MCQ for PCL Nursing level free
MCQ series 4 for PCL level Health exams preparation and study tips 2024
MCQ for medical students and nhpc license examination preparation set: 4
Introduction
Google Forms to administer an upcoming multiple-choice test. I’m writing to
respectfully ask that you take the test and do your best.
Why to Practice MCQ
It is quick and easy to gauge your level of subject knowledge by taking
the test using Google Forms. As many tests are now taken online, it’s also a
fantastic chance to practice test-taking techniques.
Before you begin
Before beginning the test, please be sure you read and comprehend the
instructions and to have a reliable internet connection. Please do not
hesitate to contact me for help if you run into any technical issues.
MCQ for PCL level google forms quiz mode
Cancer & Lung Disease
-
Most common type of cancer worldwide leading to death is:
- Lung
- Breast
- Thyroid
- Prostate
-
Most common preventable cause related to lung cancer:
- Alcohol consumption
- Pollution
- Cigarette smoking
- Red meat consumption
-
Most common variety of bronchial carcinoma:
- Adenocarcinoma (30%)
- Small cell (20%)
- Squamous cell (35%)
- Large cell (15%)
-
Hoarseness of voice in carcinoma of lung is due to compression of which nerve?
- Vagus nerve
- Recurrent laryngeal nerve (left)
- Glossopharyngeal nerve
- Hypoglossal nerve
-
A patient with a 3-month history of cough, chest pain, and hemoptysis presents with shortness of breath. X-ray shows a large left-sided effusion, and the fluid appears hemorrhagic. What is the most probable diagnosis?
- Pleural TB
- Pulmonary tuberculosis
- Carcinoma of lung
- Heart failure
Renal Diseases & Urinary System
-
Nephrotic range proteinuria is defined as:
-
1 mg in 24 hr
-
1 g in 24 hr
-
3 mg in 24 hr
-
3 g in 24 hr
-
-
Post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis occurs how long after a streptococcal throat infection?
- 1-2 weeks
- 2-4 weeks
- 6-10 weeks
- After 3 months
-
Post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis occurs how long after a streptococcal skin infection?
- 1-2 weeks
- 2-4 weeks
- 6-10 weeks
- After 3 months
-
Which group of Streptococcus is mainly responsible for PSGN?
- Group A beta-hemolytic
- Group B beta-hemolytic
- Alpha-hemolytic streptococcus
- All of the streptococci
-
Color of urine in nephritic syndrome is:
- Cola-colored
- Cloudy
- Dark yellow
- White
-
Which feature differentiates nephrotic syndrome from nephritic syndrome?
- Proteinuria
- Edema
- Hypertension
- Deranged renal function
-
Which class of antihypertensive is antiproteinuric and hence useful in nephritic syndrome?
- Calcium channel blockers
- Beta-blockers
- ACE inhibitors
- Diuretics
-
Most common cause of nephrotic syndrome is:
- Minimal change disease (90%)
- Focal segmental glomerulosclerosis
- Membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis
- Membranous nephropathy
-
Which of the following is NOT a classical feature of nephrotic syndrome?
- Heavy proteinuria
- Hypoalbuminemia
- Hypolipidemia
- Lipiduria
-
Edema in nephrotic syndrome is due to:
- Increased hydrostatic pressure
- Decreased oncotic pressure in blood
- Increased oncotic pressure in interstitial side
- Inflammation of soft tissue
Urinary System & UTI
-
Average length of female urethra is:
- 3 cm
- 4 cm
- 5 cm
- 6 cm
-
Why is the incidence of UTI higher in females?
- They are more immune-compromised
- Short urethra
- Presence of variety of bacteria in vulva
- Lack of hygiene
-
Most common pathogen group causing UTI:
- Fungus
- Protozoans
- Gram-positive bacteria
- Gram-negative bacteria
-
Most common cause of UTI:
- E. coli
- Klebsiella spp
- Proteus spp
- Pseudomonas spp
-
Renal angle tenderness is positive in:
- Nephritic syndrome
- Pyelonephritis
- Ureteric calculus
- Bladder outlet obstruction
-
Antibiotics for UTI should be given for:
- 15-20 days
- 3-5 days
- 8-10 days
- 7-14 days
-
Most common composition of renal calculus:
- Oxalate
- Uric acid
- Cystine
- Triple phosphate
-
Staghorn calculus is:
- Chemical composition of calculus
- Calculus with spikes
- A big calculus
- Large calculus taking the shape of renal pelvis
-
The calculus that can be seen on X-ray (radio-opaque) is:
- Oxalate
- Cystine
- Xanthene
- Uric acid
Acute Kidney Injury (AKI) & Dialysis
-
Acute kidney injury is diagnosed if:
- Serum creatinine increases ≥ 0.3 mg/dL from previous value
- Serum creatinine increases ≥ 50% from baseline
- Urine output <0.5 ml/kg/hr for >6 hrs
- All of the above
-
RIFLE criteria is related to:
- Acute kidney injury
- Congestive heart failure
- Stroke
- Deep venous thrombosis
-
Which drugs are nephrotoxic?
- NSAIDs
- Aminoglycosides
- Radio-opaque IV contrast
- All of the above
Diabetes & Metabolism
-
Which of the following is NOT a function of insulin?
- Increases glucose uptake in muscles
- Increases lipolysis
- Increases glycogenesis
- Increases lipogenesis
-
Which of the following is NOT a classical symptom of diabetes mellitus?
- Polyuria
- Polydipsia
- Polyphagia
- Polymorphism
-
Class II obesity is defined as BMI:
- 25-30
- 30-40
- 30-34.9
- 35-39.9
-
Common insulin injection sites include all EXCEPT:
- Periumbilical area
- Lateral thighs
- Upper outer arm
- Flank area
-
Diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) is more common in:
- Gestational DM
- Type 1 DM
- Type 2 DM
- Same in all
-
Normal fasting blood sugar level is:
- <70 mg/dL
- <100 mg/dL
- <110 mg/dL
- <126 mg/dL
-
Diagnosis of diabetes mellitus is made if:
- HbA1c ≥ 6.5%
- FBS ≥ 126 mg/dL
- 2-hour postprandial glucose ≥ 200 mg/dL
- RBS ≥ 200 mg/dL with symptoms of hyperglycemia
- All of the above
-
Which is the first-line pharmacological treatment for Type 2 Diabetes?
- Metformin
- Glimepiride
- Acarbose
- Insulin
-
Common side effect of metformin:
- GI upset
- Headache
- Hypotension
- Arrhythmia
Diabetes & Its Complications
- Maximum daily dose of metformin is:
- 1000 mg
- 1500 mg
- 2000 mg
- 2500 mg
- Which of the following is NOT true about metformin?
- It is safe in pregnancy
- Dose adjustment is needed in case of renal impairment
- It causes hypoglycemia
- Diarrhea and nausea are common symptoms
- Which is an acute complication of diabetes mellitus?
- Diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA)
- Diabetic nephropathy
- Diabetic retinopathy
- Diabetic neuropathy
- Which of the following is NOT a macrovascular complication of diabetes?
- Coronary artery disease
- Peripheral artery disease
- Cerebrovascular disease
- Diabetic retinopathy
- Normal 2-hour postprandial (PP) blood glucose after ingestion of 75 g of glucose is (mg/dL)?
- <126
- <140
- <180
- <200
- Impaired glucose tolerance is diagnosed when HbA1c is (%):
- 4.5 – 5.5
- 5.7 – 6.4
- 6.5 – 7.0
- 6.0 – 8.0
- Target 2-hour postprandial (PP) blood sugar in type 2 DM patients under treatment should be:
- <120 mg/dL
- <140 mg/dL
- <180 mg/dL
- <200 mg/dL
- Recommended level of exercise for a diabetic patient is:
- 30 minutes twice daily
- 60 minutes every day
- 30 minutes, 6 days a week
- 4-5 hours once weekly
- In the plate model for a diabetic diet, what portion of the plate should be covered by green vegetables and fruits?
- One-third
- Half
- Two-thirds
- Three-fourths
- What percentage of total calorie intake should come from carbohydrates in a diabetic patient’s diet?
- <30%
- <50%
- 40-60%
- 60-80%
- Eye examination should be done in diabetic patients every:
- 3 months
- 6 months
- Every 5 years
- Annually
- Target blood pressure for diabetic patients is:
- <110/70 mmHg
- <120/70 mmHg
- <130/80 mmHg
- <140/90 mmHg
Endocrinology & Insulin Therapy
- Route of administration of insulin is:
- Intravenous (IV)
- Subcutaneous (SC)
- Intramuscular (IM)
- Both a and b
- Common age of onset of Type 1 Diabetes is:
- 10-25 years
- 25-40 years
-
40 years
- <10 years
- Diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) is characterized by:
- Hyperglycemia
- Metabolic acidosis
- Ketosis
- All of the above
- Which of the following is NOT a common insulin injection site?
- Periumbilical area
- Lateral thighs
- Upper outer arm
- Flank area
- Which of the following is NOT a function of insulin?
- Increase glucose uptake in muscles
- Increase lipolysis
- Increase glycogenesis
- Increase lipogenesis
- Which of the following is NOT a classical symptom of Diabetes mellitus?
- Polyuria
- Polydipsia
- Polyphagia
- Polymorphism
Dialysis & Kidney Failure
- Which of the following is NOT an indication for dialysis?
- Persistent hyperkalemia
- Dysnatremia
- Severe metabolic acidosis
- Pulmonary edema
- Uremic encephalopathy
- Peritoneal dialysis is superior to hemodialysis in:
- Easy to perform
- No expensive equipment needed
- Easy to perform even in neonates
- Less expensive
- All of the above
- Which of the following is NOT a cause of prerenal acute kidney injury (AKI)?
- Hypovolemia
- Congestive cardiac failure (CCF)
- Diuretics
- Bladder calculus
- RIFLE criteria is used for assessing:
- Acute kidney injury
- Congestive heart failure
- Stroke
- Deep venous thrombosis
- Which of the following drugs are nephrotoxic?
- NSAIDs
- Aminoglycosides
- Radio-opaque IV contrast
- All of the above
Obesity & Metabolic Syndrome
- Class II obesity is defined as BMI:
- 25-30
- 30-40
- 30-34.9
- 35-39.9
- Which of the following is the first-line pharmacological management of Type 2 Diabetes?
- Metformin
- Glimepiride
- Acarbose
- Insulin
- Common side effect of metformin is:
- Gastrointestinal (GI) upset
- Headache
- Hypotension
- Arrhythmia
- Which of the following is NOT a macrovascular complication of diabetes?
- Coronary artery disease
- Peripheral artery disease
- Cerebrovascular disease
- Diabetic retinopathy
for CMA and Physician assistant (Health assistant HA ). Please take your time
reading it.
Medecins du Monde Nepal: Empowering Healthcare – médecins du monde 2024
Medecins du Monde Nepal: Enhancing Healthcare Access for Vulnerable Populations médecins du monde
Before you begin
Introduction Medecins du Monde Nepal (médecins du monde):
Médecins du Monde (MdM) is a global humanitarian organization dedicated to delivering medical care to the most vulnerable populations, both internationally and within France. Its core mission is to mobilize doctors, healthcare professionals, and experts from various fields to provide vital support and expertise for its projects. MdM aims to foster collaborative partnerships with the communities it serves, promoting a close working relationship to ensure effective and compassionate healthcare delivery.
In a country like Nepal, where access to quality healthcare is a challenge, organizations like Medecins du Monde Nepal play a vital role in improving the lives of vulnerable communities. By providing essential medical services and support, they are actively contributing to the development of a healthier and more equitable nation.
The website for Médecins du Monde (MdM), an international humanitarian organization, is:
Official website of Medecens de Mondu
Functions of Medecins du Monde Nepal (médecins du monde):
Addressing Critical Health Challenges in Nepal by Medecins du Monde Nepal:
Medecins du Monde Nepal focuses on addressing pressing health challenges that plague the nation. From tackling infectious diseases like malaria and tuberculosis to combating malnutrition and maternal health issues, their interventions aim to alleviate the burden on communities in need.
Holistic Healthcare Interventions by Medecins du Monde Nepal:
The organization takes a comprehensive approach to healthcare, providing a range of services that include primary healthcare, emergency medical assistance, and mental health support. They operate clinics, mobile medical units, and outreach programs to reach marginalized populations in remote areas.
| Medecins du Monde Nepal |
Promoting Health Education and Awareness by médecins du monde:
Recognizing the importance of preventive healthcare, Medecins du Monde Nepal emphasizes health education and awareness programs. By conducting workshops, training sessions, and awareness campaigns, they empower individuals and communities with the knowledge to prevent diseases and maintain good health.
Strengthening Community Engagement in Healthcare:
Medecins du Monde Nepal strongly believes in community participation and involvement. They work closely with local communities, establishing partnerships and involving them in decision-making processes. This approach ensures that interventions are culturally appropriate, sustainable, and address the specific needs of the communities they serve.
Sustainable Impact: Medecins du Monde Nepal’s Success Stories:
Through their efforts, Medecins du Monde Nepal has achieved significant impact and transformed the lives of countless individuals. By sharing inspiring success stories of patients who have benefited from their services, the organization highlights the power of healthcare interventions in creating lasting change.
Medecins du monde job : médecins du monde
Conclusion on Medecins du Monde Nepal:
Medecins du Monde Nepal’s unwavering commitment to providing healthcare services and support to marginalized communities is commendable. Their holistic approach, community engagement strategies, and focus on preventive healthcare make them a vital ally in Nepal’s journey towards a healthier and more inclusive society. By supporting Medecins du Monde Nepal, we contribute to the well-being and empowerment of the most vulnerable populations.
Pradesh 1 Loksewa Province 1 Loksewa Notice 2081
Pradesh 1 Loksewa Notice 2081 is out ( Province 1 loksewa )
| Pradesh 1 loksewa aayog |
Pradesh 1 loksewa aayog province 1 loksewa Introduction
Province 1 loksewa aayog website province 1 loksewa
Pradesh 1 loksewa vacancy province 1 loksewa
Pradesh 1 loksewa syllabus province 1 loksewa
| Pradesh 1 loksewa syllabus |
Pradesh 1 loksewa login province 1 loksewa
psc.p1.gov.np login job vaccancy apply psc nepal
| psc.p1.gov.mp vaccancy |
Summary:
Nursing License Model Questions for NNC license examination 2081
Here is a set of 50 multiple-choice questions (MCQs) for nursing license examinees
Table of Contents(toc)
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Nursing License Exam Questions
Anatomy
1. Which of the following is the largest bone in the human body?
- A. Humerus
- B. Femur
- C. Tibia
- D. Fibula
2. The primary function of the alveoli in the lungs is to:
- A. Filter air
- B. Exchange gases
- C. Produce mucus
- D. Store oxygen
3. Which part of the brain is responsible for coordinating voluntary movements?
- A. Cerebrum
- B. Medulla oblongata
- C. Cerebellum
- D. Hypothalamus
4. The sinoatrial (SA) node is located in the:
- A. Right atrium
- B. Left atrium
- C. Right ventricle
- D. Left ventricle
5. The structure that connects muscles to bones is known as:
- A. Ligament
- B. Tendon
- C. Cartilage
- D. Fascia
Physiology
6. The primary function of hemoglobin in the blood is to:
- A. Fight infection
- B. Transport oxygen
- C. Clot blood
- D. Regulate pH
7. Which hormone is primarily responsible for regulating blood glucose levels?
- A. Thyroxine
- B. Insulin
- C. Cortisol
- D. Adrenaline
8. The nephron is the functional unit of the:
9. Which type of muscle tissue is found in the walls of hollow organs?
- A. Skeletal muscle
- B. Cardiac muscle
- C. Smooth muscle
- D. Connective muscle
10. During the cardiac cycle, the ventricles contract during:
- A. Diastole
- B. Systole
- C. Atrial contraction
- D. Isovolumetric relaxation
Pathology
11. Which of the following conditions is characterized by the abnormal proliferation of white blood cells?
- A. Leukemia
- B. Lymphoma
- C. Anemia
- D. Thrombocytopenia
12. The primary cause of a myocardial infarction is:
- A. Hypertension
- B. Coronary artery blockage
- C. Cardiac tamponade
- D. Congestive heart failure
13. Which bacterium is most commonly associated with peptic ulcer disease?
- A. Escherichia coli
- B. Staphylococcus aureus
- C. Helicobacter pylori
- D. Streptococcus pneumoniae
14. Hyperthyroidism is most commonly caused by:
- A. Graves’ disease
- B. Hashimoto’s thyroiditis
- C. Addison’s disease
- D. Cushing’s syndrome
15. A decrease in red blood cell count is known as:
- A. Leukopenia
- B. Thrombocytopenia
- C. Anemia
- D. Polycythemia
Nursing Principles
16. The nursing process includes all of the following steps EXCEPT:
- A. Assessment
- B. Diagnosis
- C. Hypothesis
- D. Evaluation
17. Which of the following is an example of a primary prevention activity?
- A. Rehabilitation exercises after a stroke
- B. Blood pressure screening
- C. Immunization programs
- D. Physical therapy for arthritis
18. When prioritizing patient care, which of the following should be addressed first?
- A. Acute pain
- B. Risk of infection
- C. Ineffective breathing pattern
- D. Knowledge deficit
19. Which principle of ethics involves the duty to do good and avoid harm?
- A. Autonomy
- B. Beneficence
- C. Justice
- D. Fidelity
20. The best method to verify the correct placement of a nasogastric tube is:
- A. Auscultation of injected air
- B. pH testing of aspirate
- C. Patient report of nausea
- D. Observation of tube length
Ethics and Communications
21. A nurse discloses patient information without consent. This is a violation of:
- A. Autonomy
- B. Beneficence
- C. Confidentiality
- D. Veracity
22. Which of the following is an example of nonverbal communication?
- A. Speaking
- B. Writing
- C. Nodding
- D. Telephone conversation
23. The ethical principle that focuses on fairness and distribution of resources is:
- A. Autonomy
- B. Justice
- C. Nonmaleficence
- D. Fidelity
24. Informed consent requires all of the following EXCEPT:
- A. Competence
- B. Voluntariness
- C. Coercion
- D. Disclosure
25. A nurse who acts with honesty and tells the truth is practicing:
- A. Autonomy
- B. Fidelity
- C. Veracity
- D. Justice
Pediatrics
26. The first immunization a newborn typically receives is for:
27. A common sign of dehydration in infants is:
- A. Diarrhea
- B. Sunken fontanelle
- C. Rash
- D. Vomiting
28. The best way to prevent sudden infant death syndrome (SIDS) is to:
- A. Use a soft mattress
- B. Co-sleep with the baby
- C. Place the baby on their stomach to sleep
- D. Place the baby on their back to sleep
29. Which of the following is a sign of respiratory distress in a pediatric patient?
- A. Nasal flaring
- B. Cough
- C. Crying
- D. Fever
30. The appropriate pain assessment tool for a 3-year-old child is:
- A. Numeric rating scale
- B. Faces pain scale
- C. Visual analogue scale
- D. McGill pain questionnaire
Community Nursing
31. A key goal of community health nursing is to:
- A. Provide tertiary care
- B. Treat chronic diseases
- C. Promote health and prevent disease
- D. Conduct laboratory research
32. The role of a home health nurse includes all of the following EXCEPT:
- A. Conducting surgeries
- B. Providing wound care
- C. Educating patients and families
- D. Administering medications
33. Which of the following is an example of a vector-borne disease?
- A. Influenza
- B. Tuberculosis
- C. Malaria
- D. Hepatitis
34. Herd immunity is achieved when:
- A. A large percentage of the population is vaccinated
- B. All individuals are isolated
- C. Only high-risk individuals are vaccinated
- D. Disease transmission is ignored
35. The first step in the community health assessment is to:
- A. Develop a care plan
- B. Collect data
- C. Implement interventions
- D. Evaluate outcomes
Psychiatric Nursing
36. The therapeutic communication technique that involves restating the patient’s message is known as:
- A. Clarification
- B. Paraphrasing
- C. Summarizing
- D. Reflection
37. Which of the following is a negative symptom of schizophrenia?
- A. Hallucinations
- B. Delusions
- C. Anhedonia
- D. Disorganized speech
38. The priority nursing intervention for a patient experiencing a panic attack is to:
- A. Administer antianxiety medication
- B. Encourage deep breathing
- C. Provide a quiet environment
- D. Ask the patient to describe their feelings
39. Electroconvulsive therapy (ECT) is primarily used to treat:
- A. Major depressive disorder
- B. Schizophrenia
- C. Generalized anxiety disorder
- D. Obsessive-compulsive disorder
40. Which of the following medications is classified as a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI)?
- A. Lorazepam
- B. Haloperidol
- C. Fluoxetine
- D. Lithium
Adult Nursing
41. A common side effect of opioid analgesics is:
- A. Diarrhea
- B. Constipation
- C. Polyuria
- D. Insomnia
42. Which of the following is a sign of left-sided heart failure?
- A. Peripheral edema
- B. Jugular vein distention
- C. Ascites
- D. Pulmonary congestion
43. The best position for a patient experiencing dyspnea is:
- A. Prone
- B. Supine
- C. High Fowler’s
- D. Trendelenburg
44. A patient with diabetes mellitus should monitor for which of the following complications?
- A. Hypotension
- B. Hypercalcemia
- C. Hypoglycemia
- D. Hypernatremia
45. In the immediate postoperative period, the priority assessment is:
- A. Pain level
- B. Wound condition
- C. Respiratory status
- D. Fluid balance
Geriatric Nursing
46. A common sign of dehydration in the elderly is:
- A. High blood pressure
- B. Increased skin turgor
- C. Confusion
- D. Weight gain
47. Which of the following conditions is most likely to cause falls in elderly patients?
- A. Osteoporosis
- B. Hypertension
- C. Diabetes
- D. Anemia
48. Polypharmacy refers to:
- A. Using multiple pharmacies
- B. Taking multiple medications
- C. Prescription drug abuse
- D. Using over-the-counter supplements
49. A key intervention to prevent pressure ulcers in bed-bound elderly patients is:
- A. Encouraging high fluid intake
- B. Regularly turning and repositioning
- C. Providing high-calorie diet
- D. Administering prophylactic antibiotics
50. Which of the following is a common cognitive change associated with normal aging?
- A. Dementia
- B. Delirium
- C. Mild memory loss
- D. Psychosis
Below are the answer keys for the nursing license exam questions.
More nursing questions hereMore nursing questions here
Answer Key
1. B
2. B
3. C
4. A
5. B
6. B
7. B
8. B
9. C
10. B
11. A
12. B
13. C
14. A
15. C
16. C
17. C
18. C
19. B
20. B
21. C
22. C
23. B
24. C
25. C
26. B
27. B
28. D
29. A
30. B
31. C
32. A
33. C
34. A
35. B
36. B
37. C
38. C
39. A
40. C
41. B
42. D
43. C
44. C
45. C
46. C
47. A
48. B
49. B
50. C
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Optometry model questions for Optometry license exams 2081
Optometry model questions for Optometry license exams 2081
1. Which part of the eye is responsible for controlling the amount of light
entering the eye?
2. Which visual condition is characterized by the inability to see distant
objects clearly?
3. Which of the following eye muscles is responsible for upward eye
movement?
4. What is the standard unit of measurement for visual acuity?
5. Which part of the eye contains the highest density of cones for color
vision?
Click to reveal answers:
Answers:
- b) Iris
- b) Myopia
- c) Superior rectus
- c) Snellen fraction
- b) Fovea
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Answer: MCQs in dentistry 2024 NHPC Dental hygienist
Table of Contents
1. What is the primary purpose of dental prophylaxis?
**Answer: c) Preventive dental cleaning**
Explanation: Dental prophylaxis refers to the professional cleaning of teeth to remove dental plaque, calculus, and stains. It is a preventive measure aimed at maintaining oral health and preventing oral diseases such as cavities and gum disease.
2. Which of the following oral conditions is primarily caused by bacterial plaque accumulation?
**Answer: a) Dental caries (cavities)**
Explanation: Dental caries, commonly known as cavities or tooth decay, is primarily caused by the accumulation of bacterial plaque on the tooth surfaces. The bacteria in plaque produce acids that demineralize tooth enamel, leading to the formation of cavities.
3. What is the recommended technique for brushing a patient’s teeth with gingival recession?
**Answer: d) Modified Bass technique**
Explanation: The Modified Bass technique involves angling the toothbrush towards the gumline at a 45-degree angle and making small circular or vibrating motions. This technique is recommended for patients with gingival recession as it helps clean both the teeth and the gumline effectively.
4. Which dental instrument is commonly used for removing calculus deposits from the crowns of teeth?
**Answer: c) Scaler**
Explanation: A scaler is a dental instrument specifically designed for removing calculus deposits from the crowns of teeth. It has a pointed tip that can be used to gently remove hardened plaque (calculus) from the tooth surfaces.
5. Which of the following is a risk factor for developing periodontal disease?
**Answer: b) Overbrushing with a hard-bristle toothbrush**
Explanation: Overbrushing with a hard-bristle toothbrush can lead to trauma to the gums and enamel, potentially contributing to the development of periodontal disease. It’s important to use a soft-bristle toothbrush and practice proper brushing techniques to avoid damaging the oral tissues.
NHPC notice shrawan 2081
Very Important NHPC Notice 2081
NHPC has today published a very important notice to all the waiting professionals who want to take the exam on coming days.
CHeck the full NHPC notice below.
| www.nhpc.gov np notice regarding form |
Related queries:
www.nhpc.gov np notice regarding form
NHPC login how to do?
NHPC online form. bharne tarika
Last date of NHPC form sumbission and correction :
2080 Shrawan 17 11:59 PM (NIGHT)
NHPC seventh License examination Notice
NATIONAL GUIDELINES FOR SNAKEBITE MANAGEMENT IN NEPAL
NATIONAL GUIDELINES FOR SNAKEBITE MANAGEMENT IN NEPAL
| Snake |
Table of Contents(toc)
Introduction
Snakebite is an important occupational hazard affecting farmers, plantation workers, herders and fishermen. Open-style habitation and the practice of sleeping on the floor also expose people to bites from nocturnal snakes, with children being at a particularly high risk. In rural Nepal, snakebite is an important public health problem.
