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NNC License Model Questions Set

Table of Contents(toc)

NNC License Model Questions Set (May 2025)

NNC License Model Questions Set (May 2025)

  1. What is the primary electrolyte found in intracellular fluid?

    a) Sodium

    b) Calcium

    c) Potassium

    d) Chloride

  2. What is the normal count of white blood cells?

    a) 4000-11000

    b) 400000-900000

    c) 150000-400000

    d) 4.5-6.5 *10^6

  3. What is the safest route for administering an injection?

    a) Intravenous

    b) Intraperitoneal

    c) Intrapleural

    d) Intracardinal

  4. What is the term for the formation of blood cells?

    a) Thrombocytosis

    b) Leucocytosis

    c) Erythropoiesis

    d) Hemolysis

  5. Which chamber of the heart pumps oxygenated blood to the aorta?

    a) Right atrium

    b) Right ventricle

    c) Left atrium

    d) Left ventricle

  6. What is the pressure of vitreous humor in the eyes?

    a) 5-10 mm Hg

    b) 15-20 mm Hg

    c) 10-15 mm Hg

    d) 20-25 mm Hg

  7. How many bones are in the human vertebra?

    a) 25

    b) 64

    c) 33

    d) 80

  8. Which type of drug is mebendazole?

    a) Antifungal

    b) Antihelminthic

    c) Antibactericidal

    d) Antiviral

  9. What is the normal daily water intake?

    a) 1000 ml

    b) 2000 ml

    c) 1500 ml

    d) 2500 ml

  10. Which hormone is secreted by the beta cells of the islets of Langerhans?

    a) Glucagon

    b) Glycogen

    c) Insulin

    d) Amylase

  11. In which position should a patient be placed for a urinary catheterization?

    a) Dorsal recumbent position

    b) Supine position

    c) Trendelenburg position

    d) Prone position

  12. What is the fastest route to administer medication?

    a) IV (Intravenous)

    b) ID (Intradermal)

    c) IM (Intramuscular)

    d) SC (Subcutaneous)

  13. What is the normal body temperature in Celsius for 104°F?

    a) 38°C

    b) 40°C

    c) 41°C

    d) 42°C

  14. What is the purpose of administering an intravenous solution of 0.45 sodium chloride?

    a) Isotonic

    b) Hypotonic

    c) Isometric

    d) Hypertonic

  15. What is the most common site for pressure ulcer formation?

    a) Occipital area

    b) Sacrum

    c) Sternum

    d) Humerus

  16. What is the most important step to prevent the spread of infection?

    a) Wearing gloves

    b) Hand washing

    c) Wearing a mask

    d) Wearing a coat

  17. When is International Nurses Day celebrated?

    a) 12th May

    b) 12th March

    c) 2nd May

    d) 31st July

  18. What is the term for an abnormal, unexpected response to a drug?

    a) Drug tolerance

    b) Cumulative effect

    c) Idiosyncratic effect

    d) Anaphylactic shock

  19. What type of vaccine is given against measles?

    a) Live attenuated

    b) Killed

    c) Toxoid

    d) Inactive

  20. What is the best method for solid waste disposal?

    a) Composting

    b) Incineration

    c) Dumping

    d) Burial

  21. What is the standard temperature and pressure for autoclaving?

    a) 120°C (250°F), at 106 kPa (15 Ibs/in²) for 30 minutes

    b) 110°C at 106 kPa (15 Ibs/in²) for 30 minutes

    c) 100°C at 106 kPa (15 Ibs/in²) for 30 minutes

    d) 90°C at 106 kPa (15 Ibs/in²) for 30 minutes

  22. What does DOTS stand for in tuberculosis treatment?

    a) Directly Observed Treatment Short-course

    b) Direct Observed Treatment Short-course

    c) Direct Observed Treatment System

    d) Directly Observed Treatment System

  23. What is the most reliable indicator of a patient’s fluid balance status?

    a) Intake and output

    b) Skin turgor

    c) Complete blood count

    d) Daily weight

  24. What type of breathing is a combination of hyperpnoea and apnoea?

    a) Dyspnea

    b) Orthopnea

    c) Cheyne-Stokes breathing

    d) Asphyxia

  25. What is the role of oral contraceptives?

    a) Preventing ovulation

    b) Making the endometrial lining non-reactive to the embryo

    c) Making sperm inactive

    d) Inhibiting sperm penetration of the ovum

  26. What is the primary vector for malaria?

    a) Plasmodium vivax

    b) Plasmodium falciparum

    c) Plasmodium malariae

    d) Female Anopheles mosquito

  27. What is the most effective way to collect a sterile urine specimen?

    a) From a clean bedpan or urinal

    b) From the first small amount of urine voided

    c) From urine voided midstream

    d) All of the above

  28. What is the recommended position for a patient undergoing nasogastric feeding?

    a) Low Fowler’s position

    b) Trendelenburg

    c) Supine position

    d) Side-lying position

  29. When administering a blood transfusion, when should the nurse assess the patient for a transfusion reaction?

    a) Every 15 minutes after infusion starts

    b) After the blood is fully infused

    c) Every hour

    d) Every 15 minutes

  30. What is the first action when encountering a person with cardiopulmonary arrest?

    a) Assess responsiveness

    b) Assess the airway

    c) Assess circulation

    d) Assess breathing

Correct Answers:

  1. c) Potassium
  2. a) 4000-11000
  3. a) Intravenous
  4. c) Erythropoiesis
  5. d) Left ventricle
  6. b) 15-20 mm Hg
  7. c) 33
  8. b) Antihelminthic
  9. b) 2000 ml
  10. c) Insulin
  11. a) Dorsal recumbent position
  12. a) IV (Intravenous)
  13. b) 40°C
  14. b) Hypotonic
  15. b) Sacrum
  16. b) Hand washing
  17. a) 12th May
  18. c) Idiosyncratic effect
  19. a) Live attenuated
  20. b) Incineration
  21. a) 120°C (250°F), at 106 kPa (15 Ibs/in²) for 30 minutes
  22. a) Directly Observed Treatment Short-course
  23. d) Daily weight
  24. c) Cheyne-Stokes breathing
  25. a) Preventing ovulation
  26. d) Female Anopheles mosquito
  27. c) From urine voided midstream
  28. a) Low Fowler’s position
  29. a) Every 15 minutes after infusion starts
  30. a) Assess responsiveness

Nursing MCQs Model Question (VVIMP)

Table of Contents(toc)


Important Nursing MCQs Model Questions

  1. What is the pressure of vitreous humor in the eyes?

  • 5-10 mm of HG

  • 15-20 mm of HG

  • 10-15 mm of HG

  • 20-25 mm of HG

  1. How many bones are present in the human vertebra?

  • 25

  • 64

  • 33

  • 80

  1. The process of blood cell formation is known as…

  • Thrombocytosis

  • Leucocytosis

  • Erythropoiesis

  • Hemolysis

  1. Which of the following is the most important electrolyte of intracellular fluid?

  • Sodium

  • Calcium

  • Potassium

  • Chloride

  1. The safest route for injection is…

  • Intravenous

  • Intraperitoneal

  • Intrapleural

  • Intracardial

  1. The normal WBC count is…

  • 4000-11000

  • 400000-900000

  • 150000-400000

  • 4.5-6.5 *10⁶

  1. A nurse is administering a hypotonic IV solution. Which of the following is the correct solution?

  • 5% dextrose in water

  • 0.45% sodium chloride

  • 10% dextrose in water

  • 0.9% sodium chloride

  1. What is the normal intake of water per day?

  • 1000 ml

  • 2000 ml

  • 1500 ml

  • 2500 ml

  1. The beta cells of Islets of Langerhans secrete which hormone?

  • Glucagon

  • Glycogen

  • Insulin

  • Amylase

  1. Which chamber of the heart pumps oxygenated blood to the aorta?

  • Right atrium

  • Right ventricle

  • Left atrium

  • Left ventricle

  1. A patient is scheduled for urinary catheterization. In which position should the nurse place the patient?

  • Dorsal recumbent position

  • Supine position

  • Trendelenburg position

  • Prone position

  1. The fastest route for administering medicine is…

  • IV (Intravenous)

  • ID (Intradermal)

  • IM (Intramuscular)

  • SC (Subcutaneous)

  1. When is International Nurses Day celebrated?

  • 12th May

  • 12th March

  • 2nd May

  • 31st July

  1. The most effective way to prevent the spread of infection is…

  • Wearing gloves

  • Hand washing

  • Wearing a mask

  • Wearing a coat

  1. A patient is having dyspnea. To facilitate respiration, the nurse would…

  • Remove the pillow from under the head

  • Elevate the head of the bed

  • Elevate the foot of the bed

  • Take the blood pressure

Please comment down the answers below.

Here’s the answer key for the provided MCQs:

  1. 15-20 mm of HG
  2. 33
  3. Erythropoiesis
  4. Potassium
  5. Intravenous
  6. 4000-11000
  7. 0.45% sodium chloride
  8. 2000 ml
  9. Insulin
  10. Left ventricle
  11. Dorsal recumbent position
  12. IV (Intravenous)
  13. 12th May
  14. Hand washing
  15. Elevate the head of the bed

High yeild dermatology notes

Condyloma Acuminatum (Genital Warts)

Caused by Human Papillomavirus (HPV).
Exophytic, cauliflower-like lesions.
Typically found on moist surfaces: perianal area, vaginal introitus, vagina,
labia, and vulva.
Can also occur on dry surfaces like the shaft of the penis.
Condyloma lata: Flat papules of secondary syphilis, painless ulcers.
Chancroid: Caused by Haemophilus ducreyi, characterized by painful ulcers.

Curable Non-Ulcerative STDs

Gonorrhea
Chlamydia
Trichomoniasis

Vaginitis

Most common cause: Candida.
Second most common cause: Trichomonas vaginalis.
Vulvar Intraepithelial Disease/Pre-malignant Lesion
Paget’s Disease.
Most common lesion of the vulva: Condyloma acuminata (Genital warts).

Bartholin Cyst

Results from obstruction of the Bartholin duct.
Soft, painless mass.
Most commonly infected by Gonorrhea, less commonly by Staphylococcus aureus.
Infected cyst is called Bartholin abscess, which is painful.
—

Bacterial Vaginosis vs. Trichomonas Vaginalis

Bacterial Vaginosis

Clue cells and fishy smell, painless.
Thin, grayish-white discharge, often fishy-smelling after sexual intercourse.
Amsel’s Criteria (requires at least 3 out of 4):
Thin, homogeneous discharge coating the vaginal walls.
Clue cells on microscopy (vaginal epithelial cells covered with bacteria).
Vaginal pH > 4.5.
Positive “whiff test” (fishy odor when 10% KOH is added).
Nugent scoring (Gram stain-based scoring system) for a definitive diagnosis.
Can cause early miscarriage and pre-term birth (most common cause).

Trichomonas Vaginalis

Microscopic examination: Wet mount reveals motile T. vaginalis (pear-shaped
with flagella).
NAAT (Nucleic Acid Amplification Test) for high sensitivity and specificity.
Per speculum: Erythematous plaques, punctate “strawberry cervix.”
Normal pH.
Symptoms: Pain during intercourse, burning sensation, itching.
Offensive, foul-smelling, green/gray/pink frothy, yellow vaginal discharge.
Treat with Metronidazole for both partners.
Can cause pregnancy complications, including low birth weight and premature
rupture of membranes.
Comparison of Bacterial Vaginosis and Trichomonas Vaginalis
Feature Bacterial Vaginosis Trichomonas Vaginalis
Cause Overgrowth of anaerobic bacteria Trichomonas vaginalis (protozoan parasite)
Discharge Characteristics Thin, grayish-white, homogeneous, fishy odor Green, gray, pink frothy, yellow discharge
Pain/Itching Painless Painful intercourse, burning sensation, itching
Microscopic Findings Clue cells (vaginal epithelial cells covered with bacteria) Motile pear-shaped organisms with flagella
pH > 4.5 Normal pH
Diagnostic Test Amsel’s criteria, Nugent scoring (Gram stain) NAAT (Nucleic Acid Amplification Test), Wet mount microscopy
Treatment Metronidazole or Clindamycin Metronidazole (both partners)
Impact on Pregnancy Can cause early miscarriage and pre-term birth Low birth weight, premature rupture of membranes

check ctevt result with marksheet

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Spinal Reflexes and their roots

Deep tendon reflexes roots

  • Ankle jerk: S1, S_{2}
  • Knee jerk: L_{3} L_{4}
  • Biceps jerk: C_{5} , C_{6}
  • Triceps jerk: C_{7} C_{8}
  • Radial jerk: C_{6}
  • Jaw jerk: Pons

Superficial reflexes roots

  • Plantar reflex: S_{1} S_{2}
  • Abdominal reflex: Gamma_{7} – T_{11}
  • Cremasteric reflex: L_{1}

Model Question 

24. Inverse supinator jerk is:
a. C5, C6
с. 15,51
b. C6,C7
d. L4, S1
Ans: ‘a’ c5, c6

Anatomy of the stethoscope: You must know how does a stethoscope work 2024

Anatomy of a Stethoscope? What are parts of the stethoscope? how does
stethoscope work?

Table of Contents(toc)

A stethoscope is an essential tool for auscultation or listening to internal
sounds of an animal or human body. It can help diagnose various conditions
related to the heart, lungs, abdomen and blood vessels. A stethoscope consists
of three main parts: a chest-piece, a headset and a tubing. This is anatomy of
stethoscope (stethoscope anatomy). Stheth is occasionally referred as steth as
well.

Parts of stethoscope

Parts of stethoscope: 

Here are parts of stethoscope explained.

The chest piece:

The chest-piece is the part that contacts the patient’s body. It has a stem
that connects to the tubing and a diaphragm and/or a bell that transmits sound
waves to the earpieces. The diaphragm is a thin membrane that vibrates when
exposed to high-frequency sounds, such as heartbeats and breath sounds. The
bell is a hollow cup that resonates with low-frequency sounds, such as murmurs
and bruits. Some stethoscopes have a single-head design that can switch
between diaphragm and bell modes by applying different pressure on the
chest-piece. Others have a dual-head design that has both diaphragm and bell
on opposite sides of the chest-piece.

The headset:

The headset is the part that delivers sound to the user’s ears. It consists of
two eartubes, tension springs and eartips. The eartubes are metal rods that
are angled to fit into the user’s ear canals comfortably and securely. The
tension springs are flexible wires that allow the user to adjust the pressure
on their ears by squeezing or pulling apart the eartubes. The eartips are soft
rubber or silicone caps that seal out external noise and enhance sound
quality.
They come in different sizes and shapes to suit different
preferences.

The tubings:

The tubing is the part that connects the chest-piece to the headset.

It is made of durable material that can withstand bending and folding without
affecting sound transmission.
The length of the tubing affects how far
you can stand from your patient while auscultating.
A longer tubing may
reduce sound quality but increase mobility, while a shorter tubing may improve
sound quality but limit mobility.

How does stethoscope work?

  • A stethoscope works by converting acoustic energy into mechanical energy and
    then into electrical energy. 
  • When sound waves hit the diaphragm or bell of the
    chest-piece, they cause it to vibrate. 
  • These vibrations are transmitted through air-filled columns in the lumen
    tubing to metal springs in the eartubes. 
  • These springs amplify the vibrations and send them to magnets in the eartips.
    These magnets generate electric currents that stimulate the user’s auditory
    nerves. 
In this way if we listen to a person’s heart we can hear a lub dub sound. Some
stethoscope’s have tunable diaphragms as well.

Know parts of steth

Importance of stethoscope?

A stethoscope is not only an instrument for diagnosis but also an expression
of professionalism and identity for doctors and nurses. It is important to
choose one that suits your needs, preferences and budget. You should also take
care of your stethoscope by cleaning it regularly, storing it properly and
replacing worn-out parts when necessary.

Types of stethoscope?

There are many types of stethoscopes available in the market, each with its
own advantages and disadvantages. Some common types are:

Acoustic stethoscopes:

These are traditional stethoscopes that use air columns in tubes to transmit
sound waves from chest-pieces to earpieces. They are simple, inexpensive and
widely used, but they may have low sound quality, especially for low-frequency
sounds.

Electronic stethoscopes:

These are modern stethoscopes that use electronic circuits to amplify, filter
and process sound waves from chest-pieces before sending them to earpieces or
speakers. They have high sound quality, even for low-frequency sounds, but
they may be expensive, complex and require batteries.
How to wear a stethoscope

Digital stethoscopes:

These are advanced stethoscopes that use digital technology to convert sound
waves from chest-pieces into digital signals before sending them to earpieces
or computers. They can record, display and analyze sounds using software
applications,but they may be costly, sophisticated and require compatible
devices.
Anatomy of the stethocope and physiology: different parts labelled

Fetal stethoscopes:

These are specialized stethoscopes that are designed to listen to fetal
heart sounds during pregnancy. They have large bells or horns that can fit
over pregnant women’s abdomens, but they may be difficult to use,
uncomfortable and inaccurate.

Doppler stethoscopes:

These are unique stethoscopes that use Doppler effect.

Manufacturers of stethoscope:

Various companies make stethoscopes including 3m littmann, fricare, mdf,
mccoy, alimed etc.
How does a stethoscope work

Use of stethoscope:

  1. Measure blood pressure
  2. Hear lung sounds
  3. listen to heart sounds
  4. listen to bruits
  5. listen to other sounds in body
  6. listen to fetal heart sounds


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Normal Lab Values Commonly Used

Vital Signs

  • Blood Pressure: <120 mmHg Systolic, <80 mmHg Diastolic
  • Heart Rate: 60 – 100 bpm
  • Respirations: 12 – 20 breaths/min
  • Oxygen Saturation: 92% – 100%
  • Temperature: 97.8°F – 99°F

Complete Blood Count (CBC)

  • Hemoglobin: 12 – 18 g/dL
  • Hematocrit: 35% – 55%
  • Total RBC: 4 – 6 million/mm³
  • Platelets: 150,000 – 400,000 /mm³
  • WBC: 4,000 – 10,000 /mm³

Electrolytes

  • Sodium: 135 – 145 mEq/L
  • Potassium: 3.5 – 5 mEq/L
  • Magnesium: 1.3 – 2.1 mEq/L
  • Calcium: 9 – 10.5 mg/dL
  • Phosphorous: 3.0 – 4.5 mg/dL
  • Ammonia: 15 – 45 µg/dL

Liver Panel

  • ALT: 10 – 36 U/L
  • AST: 0 – 35 U/L
  • Bilirubin: 0.2 – 1.2 mg/dL
  • Total Protein: 6 – 8 g/dL

Arterial Blood Gas (ABG)

  • pH: 7.35 – 7.45
  • PaCO2: 35 – 45 mmHg
  • PaO2: 80 – 100 mmHg
  • HCO3 (Bicarbonate): 22 – 26 mEq/L

Coagulation / Cardiac Enzymes

  • PT: 10 – 20 seconds
  • PTT: 25 – 35 seconds
  • INR: 2 – 3
  • Troponin T: <0.10 ng/mL
  • Troponin I: <0.03 ng/mL
  • BNP: <100

Renal Function

  • BUN: 7 – 20 mg/dL
  • Creatinine: 0.6 – 1.2 mg/dL
  • Creatinine Clearance: 85 – 135 mL/min
  • Serum Albumin: 3.5 – 5.5 g/dL
  • Specific Gravity: 1.010 – 1.030

Random Values

  • ICP: 7 – 15 mmHg
  • MAP: 70 – 100 mmHg
  • Amylase: 30 – 200 U/L
  • Lipase: 0 – 160 U/L

Metabolism

  • Cholesterol: <200
  • LDL: <70
  • HDL: >60
  • Triglycerides: <150
  • Glucose: <200
  • Hemoglobin A1C: 4 – 5.7%

Baal Vita: Improving Child Health in Nepal: Balvita, Vitamin A, and Deworming Programs

 What are vitamins?

Vitamins are types of micronutrients needed for proper growth and maintainance of health. Vitamins are found in the foods we eat daily. 

How much vitamin does a person require?

Vitamins are required in very small quantity for our body. The growing a children require more amount of vitamins and minerals than adults. Adults are also required to eat sufficient amount of vitamins for maintenance of their body. Vitamins are also required to boost the immune system of our body. This helps our body to fight against different kind of communicable and non communicable disease like infection of bacteria, viruses and fungus as well as cancer and heart diseses.

Where do we get nutrients and vitamins from?

Generally if a person is eating healthy and nutritious balanced diet and he or she is not suffering from any disease then there is high chance that the person is already taking sufficient amount of nutrition and nutrients in his or her diet. But in some cases and if the person is suffering from disease or not able to eat properly then there might be nutrition defeciency. 

Why do children need nutrients supplement?

Children are special population, nutrition during childhood refers to their health growth and long term health benefit. If a child suffers from nutrition deficiency in childhood the person might suffer is who life due to this. Nutrition supplement during childhood also means that the child will be healthy his whole life. Growth and development failure during his or her childhood means he/she will have problem with his/her whole life. 

Does my child need nutrition supplement?

The answer to this question is not all the children may need nutrition supplement. But still there is possibility that your child might be having nutrition deficiency. If the nutrients are supplied in safe doors then there is no side effect of it. So basically there is no harm in supplementing nutrients to your child but this may benefit your child instead. Supplementing nutrition will treat the nutrition deficiency while not harming your baby. For the same reason you should provide supplement nutrition to your baby rather than not doing it. There is more benefit of providing supplement. There is high chance that you are baby might have nutrition deficiency so it should be advised to treat the nutrition deficiency.

What are the nutrition supplement that I can give to my baby?

There are multiple supplementary options available for our baby. There is a famous nutrition supplement which contains 16 types of micro nutrients all in one called Balvita supplied by government of nepal for free. Special nutrients supplement required for children is vitamin A. 

What is Balvita?

Balvita is a type of nutritional supplement that is designed to provide essential vitamins and minerals to support the growth and development of children. Balvita is typically recommended for children who may have nutritional deficiencies or who require additional support for healthy growth and development. 

Baal Vita (also spelled Balvita) is a multiple micronutrient powder (MNP) provided to young children, primarily in Nepal, to combat malnutrition, prevent anemia, and promote healthy physical and cognitive development.

It is also called multi micronutrient powder as well. 

How to feed balvita to my baby?

In Nepal, “Balvita” (also called Baal Vita or micronutrient powder) is usually given to babies from 6 months onward along with complementary foods. It is meant to add vitamins and minerals to homemade food. (Dr Chaitanya Joshi, MD)

Here’s the recommended way to feed it:

  1. Wash your hands and use a clean bowl/spoon.
  2. Prepare soft semi-solid food your baby already eats, such as:
    • lito
    • jaulo/khichdi
    • mashed rice
    • mashed potato or vegetables
  3. Open one full sachet from the pointed edge.
  4. Mix the entire sachet thoroughly into a small serving of food that the baby can finish in one sitting.
  5. Feed immediately with a spoon.

Important precautions:

  • Do not mix Balvita into very hot food because heat can reduce vitamin effectiveness.
  • Do not mix it into watery liquids or a feeding bottle.
  • Use the whole sachet at once; do not divide it for multiple meals.
  • Continue breastfeeding along with complementary feeding.
  • If your baby develops vomiting, rash, diarrhea, or feeding problems, consult a pediatrician.

The Nepal nutrition program commonly provides about 60 sachets every 6 months for children aged 6–24 months.

Deworming

According to WHO the country in which there is more than 20 % of ppulation suffering from worm infestation then the country should deworm the population twice a year. 

Neapal also has hugh prevalence of worm infestation and among children and the pregnant women the prevalence of infestatio nis more than one third. 

It has been shown that one tablet of albendazole 400 mg or mebendazole 500 mg can kill almost all of the intestinal worms.

Nepal has decided to distribute albendazole for purpose of deworming. This tablet can kill various types of worms including Ancylostoma canium, Ancylostoma duodenale (Nectar americanus), Ascaris lumbricoids (intestinal worm), Enteribiasis (pinworm), Oesophagostomum bifurcum etc. 

Mechanism of action of albendazole:

The active metabolite of albendazole is albendazole sulfoxide. It causes selective degenration if the cytoplasmic degeneration of the microtubules in intestinal and tegmental cells of intestinal helminths and larvae; glycogen is depleted, glucose uptake and cholinesterase secretion is imparired, and desecratory substance is accumulated intracellularly. ATP production decreases. This causes energy depletion and immobilization and subsequent worm death. Thus dead worm is passed down in stool. 

Dose of albendazole:

Childres one year to less than 2 years -> 200 mg (1/2 tablet twice yearly

Children 2 years to 5 years -> one tablet of 400 mg twice yearly

Pregnant woman after first trimester -> one tablet of albendazole 400 mg

What is vitamin A?

Vitamin A is a micronutrient found mostly in green leafy vegetables and animal source foods like meat, eggs and dairy products.

What does vitamin a do in our body:

High dose vitamin A  supplementation is done to prevent and treat many conditions among children and adults.

The dose of vitamin A in different population is summerized below

  1. Children 6 to under 12 months of age – one oral vitamin A dose of 100,000 IU two times per year
  2. Children 12 to 59 months of age – one oral vitamin A dose of 200,000 IU two times per year
  3. Women immediately following childbirth, or as soon as possible up to six weeks post-partum, can be given one oral dose of vitamin A 200,000 IU
  4. To treat complications related to deficiency- xerophthalmia etc three doses one upon diagnosis, one the following day and third dose one month later (Note: one dose: 100,000 IU for children aged 6-<12 months; 200,000 IU for children more than 12 months)
  5. For measles: one upon diagnosis and another the following day(Note: one dose: 100,000 IU for children aged 6-<12 months; 200,000 IU for children more than 12 months)
  6. Prolonged diarrhea: more than two weeks: one dose immidiately after diagnosis (Note: one dose: 100,000 IU for children aged 6-<12 months; 200,000 IU for children more than 12 months)
  7. Severe malnutrition: one dose immidiately after diagnosis (Note: one dose: 100,000 IU for children aged 6-<12 months; 200,000 IU for children more than 12 months)
  8. For pregnant women with nightblindness: 25000 IU once  a week for four weeks (4 doses)

Foods that are rich in vitamin A: (mcg/100 gm)

Food ItemVitamin A (mcg/100gm)
Stinging nettle12857
Colocasia leaves12000
Coriander leaves6918
Spinach5580
Amaranth, tender5520
Radish leaves5295
Carrot4275
Goat liver3030
Mango2743
Mustard leaves2622
Fenugreek leaves2340
Pumpkin leaves1940
Chicken liver1930
Bethe leaves1740
Mustard leaves1520
Rape leaves1380
Pumpkin1160
Papaya666
Onion stalk595
Soybean426
Eggs420
Lentil270
Cabbage120

TU Staff Nurse Model Question PDF Download

TU Staff Nurse Mode Questions 1-20

  1. Providing health education about environmental hygiene to community
    members is:

    • A. Structural communication
    • B. Social communication
    • C. Formal communication
    • D. Therapeutic communication

  2. Which of the following is not a visual aid used in health
    education?

    • A. Chart
    • B. Film strip
    • C. Audio cassette
    • D. Poster

  3. Which hepatitis is transferred through institutional and health
    settings?

    • A. Hepatitis D
    • B. Hepatitis C
    • C. Hepatitis B
    • D. Hepatitis A

  4. Iodination of salt is an example of which level of prevention?

    • A. Primary prevention
    • B. Primordial prevention
    • C. Secondary prevention
    • D. Tertiary prevention

  5. Capnography measures:

    • A. CO
    • B. N2
    • C. Carbon dioxide
    • D. Hydrogen

  6. Which of the following is not a side effect of morphine
    sulfate?

    • A. Absence of deep tendon reflex
    • B. Decreased respiration
    • C. Increased respiration rate
    • D. Decreased CNS

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  7. The plasma osmolarity range is:

    • A. 240-250 mosl/kg H2O
    • B. 270-280 mosl/kg H2O
    • C. 220-230 mosl/kg H2O
    • D. 280-295 mosl/kg H2O

  8. Arterial blood pH is:

    • A. 7.2
    • B. 7.4
    • C. 7.3
    • D. 7.8

  9. Which is not included in ethical principles?

    • A. Justice
    • B. Maleficence
    • C. Autonomy
    • D. Non-maleficence

  10. Aspirin should be taken with which of the following drinks?

  • A. Milk
  • B. Orange juice
  • C. Soda
  • D. Full glass of water
  1. The first branch of the human aorta is:
  • A. Left subclavian artery
  • B. Brachiocephalic artery
  • C. Coronary artery
  • D. Left common carotid artery
  1. The least blood pressure is found in:
  • A. Aorta
  • B. Capillary
  • C. Vein
  • D. Vena cava
  1. Extracellular fluids are rich in the following except:
  • A. K+
  • B. HCO3-
  • C. Na+
  • D. Ca2+
  1. The left border of the heart is formed by:
  • A. Right ventricle
  • B. Left atrium
  • C. Left atrium and left ventricle
  • D. Left ventricle
  1. Which of the following is the correct pathway for the propagation of the
    cardiac impulse?
  • A. AV node → Bundle of His → SA node → Purkinje fibers
  • B. SA node → Purkinje fibers → AV node → Bundle of His
  • C. SA node → AV node → Bundle of His → Purkinje fibers
  • D. Purkinje fibers → AV node → SA node → Bundle of His
  1. The blood in the mammalian heart pumped by the right ventricle passes out
    of the orifice guarded by:
  • A. Bicuspid valve
  • B. Tricuspid valve
  • C. Aortic arch
  • D. Pulmonary valve
  1. Fibrous cords called ___________ connect the free valve margins and
    ventricular surfaces of the valve cusps to papillary muscles and
    ventricular walls.
  • A. Chordae tendineae
  • B. Lunulae
  • C. Bundle of His
  • D. Kent bundles
  1. Intra-aortic balloon pump therapy is used for the treatment of:
  • A. Congestive heart failure
  • B. Cardiogenic shock
  • C. Pulmonary edema
  • D. Aortic insufficiency
  1. Which of the following assessment findings would elicit specific
    information regarding the left ventricular function of a patient with left
    ventricular failure?

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  • A. Assessing peripheral and sacral edema
  • B. Assessing jugular vein distention
  • C. Monitoring for organomegaly
  • D. Listening to lung sounds
  1. Which of the following ECG findings indicates the presence of
    hypokalemia?
  • A. Tall, peak T wave
  • B. ST segment depression
  • C. Widening of the QRS complex
  • D. Prolonged PR interval

TU Staff Nurse Mode Questions 21-40

  1. Bruce protocol is related to:
  • A. CABG
  • B. Echocardiogram
  • C. Angiogram
  • D. Exercise ECG test
  1. A patient has developed atrial fibrillation and his ventricular rate is
    150 beats per minute. What should the patient be assessed for
    next?
  • A. Flat neck veins
  • B. Complaints of nausea
  • C. Complaints of headache
  • D. Hypotension
  1. Which of the following beverages can be included in the menu of a patient
    with myocardial infarction?
  • A. Coffee
  • B. Tea
  • C. Cola
  • D. Lemonade
  1. A patient is undergoing cardiac catheterization. Which of the following
    sensations reported by the patient during the procedure has the highest
    priority?
  • A. Pressure at the insertion site
  • B. Urge to cough
  • C. Warm, flushed feeling
  • D. Chest pain
  1. A patient recovering from cardiac surgery has a pleural effusion on the
    left side and is having thoracentesis. The patient should be placed in
    which position for the procedure?
  • A. Upright and leaning forward with the arms on the over-the-bed table
  • B. Right-side lying with legs curled up into a fetal position
  • C. Left-lateral with the right arm supported by a pillow
  • D. Dorsal recumbent
  1. Which of the following statements about Prinzmetal’s (variant) angina is
    correct?
  • A. Managed most effectively with beta-blocking drugs
  • B. Drug of choice in variant angina is nitrates
  • C. Generally treated with calcium channel blockers
  • D. Improves with low-sodium, high-potassium diet

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  1. The cardiac rhythm is:
  • A. Sinus bradycardia
  • B. Sinus tachycardia
  • C. Normal sinus rhythm
  • D. First-degree heart block
  1. A patient with myocardial infarction experiencing new multiform,
    premature contractions. The patient is allergic to lidocaine
    hydrochloride. What is the next drug of choice for immediate use?
  • A. Digoxin
  • B. Metoprolol
  • C. Verapamil
  • D. Procainamide
  1. A patient with complete heart block has had a permanent demand pacemaker
    inserted. The pacemaker function is considered to be proper if the ECG
    rhythm strip shows the presence of a pacemaker spike:
  • A. Just after each T wave
  • B. Before each QRS complex
  • C. Just after each P wave
  • D. Before each P wave
  1. Which of the following interventions is contraindicated in a patient with
    deep vein thrombosis of the right leg?
  • A. Elevation of the limb
  • B. Ambulation in the hall every 4 hours
  • C. Application of moist heat to the right leg
  • D. Administration of analgesics
  1. The circumflex artery is a branch of:
  • A. Right coronary artery
  • B. Anterior descending artery
  • C. Left coronary artery
  • D. Descending aorta
  1. Apical pulse is taken by placing the diaphragm of the stethoscope at the
    area of:
  • A. Right atrium
  • B. Right ventricle
  • C. Pulmonic valve
  • D. Mitral area
  1. A female patient who has had a myocardial infarction asks the nurse why
    she should not bear down or strain to ensure having a bowel movement. The
    nurse informs her that this would trigger:
  • A. Vagus nerve stimulation, causing a decrease in heart rate and cardiac
    contractility

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  • B. Vagus nerve stimulation, causing an increase in heart rate and cardiac
    contractility
  • C. Sympathetic nerve stimulation, causing an increase in heart rate and
    cardiac contractility
  • D. Sympathetic nerve stimulation, causing a decrease in heart rate and
    cardiac contractility
  1. Which of the following interventions is NOT indicated in a patient with
    stable ventricular tachycardia?
  • A. Assess airway, breathing, and circulation
  • B. Administer oxygen
  • C. Obtain an ECG
  • D. Defibrillate the patient
  1. Which of the following manifestations differentiates pericarditis from
    other cardiopulmonary problems?
  • A. Chest pain that worsens on expiration
  • B. Pericardial friction rub
  • C. Anterior chest pain
  • D. Weakness and irritability
  1. Which of the following is NOT associated with cardiac tamponade?
  • A. Pulsus paradoxus
  • B. Distant heart sounds
  • C. Distended jugular veins
  • D. Bradycardia
  1. Digitalis functions to improve congestive heart failure by:
  • A. Induction of emesis
  • B. Activation of beta-adrenergic receptors
  • C. Improving survival in patients with heart failure
  • D. Binding to and inhibiting the Na–K ATPase enzyme in cardiac myocytes
  1. A nurse is caring for a client who is being discharged after cardiac
    surgery. The client has a prescription for enoxaparin to take at home.
    Which of the following discharge information should the nurse give to this
    client?
  • A. Do not eat red meat or any substance that contains tyramine
  • B. Drink an eight-ounce glass of water each evening before going to bed
  • C. Use a soft toothbrush for brushing teeth and an electric razor for
    shaving
  • D. Avoid wearing sandals or shoes for longer than 6 hours at a time

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  1. Nurse Kumari, a triage nurse, encountered a client who complained of
    mid-sternal chest pain, dizziness, and diaphoresis. Which of the following
    nursing actions should take priority?
  • A. Administer oxygen therapy via nasal cannula
  • B. Notify the physician
  • C. Complete history taking
  • D. Put the client on ECG monitoring
  1. The emergency medical service has transported a client with severe chest
    pain. As the client is being transferred to the emergency stretcher, you
    note unresponsiveness, cessation of breathing, and an unpalpable pulse.
    Which of the following tasks is appropriate to initiate first?
  • A. Establish an IV line and administer oxygen
  • B. Begin cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR)
  • C. Administer aspirin and morphine
  • D. Perform defibrillation if indicated

TU Staff Nurse Mode Questions 41- 50

  1. The primary purpose of defibrillation is to:
  • A. Increase heart rate
  • B. Convert an irregular rhythm to normal sinus rhythm
  • C. Terminate a life-threatening arrhythmia
  • D. Slow down the heart rate
  1. In the management of a patient with acute myocardial infarction (MI),
    which of the following medications should be avoided in the acute
    phase?
  • A. Nitroglycerin
  • B. Beta-blockers
  • C. Heparin
  • D. Thrombolytics
  1. Which of the following is the most common cause of right-sided heart
    failure?
  • A. Myocardial infarction
  • B. Pulmonary hypertension
  • C. Coronary artery disease
  • D. Aortic stenosis
  1. Which of the following changes would you expect to find in the vital
    signs of a patient in shock?
  • A. Bradycardia and elevated blood pressure
  • B. Tachycardia and decreased blood pressure
  • C. Hypothermia and increased blood pressure
  • D. Normal heart rate and decreased blood pressure
  1. Which of the following is the best indicator of fluid overload in a
    patient with heart failure?
  • A. Increased respiratory rate
  • B. Jugular vein distention
  • C. Decreased blood pressure
  • D. Decreased urinary output
  1. What is the primary purpose of the pulmonary artery catheter in a
    critically ill patient?
  • A. To assess central venous pressure (CVP)
  • B. To monitor oxygen saturation levels
  • C. To measure cardiac output and assess fluid status
  • D. To deliver medications to the heart
  1. Which of the following is a complication of an acute myocardial
    infarction?
  • A. Pneumothorax
  • B. Cardiac tamponade
  • C. Pericarditis
  • D. Gastrointestinal bleeding
  1. Which of the following is most likely to cause a false low reading when
    measuring blood pressure with a manual cuff?
  • A. Cuff too large for the arm
  • B. The cuff is inflated too quickly
  • C. The patient is sitting with the arm at heart level
  • D. The patient has an increased heart rate
  1. Which of the following is an appropriate nursing action when
    administering a diuretic to a patient with heart failure?
  • A. Restrict fluid intake to 1000 mL per day
  • B. Monitor potassium levels regularly
  • C. Instruct the patient to lie flat after administration
  • D. Monitor the patient for signs of hyperglycemia
  1. A patient is receiving warfarin therapy for atrial fibrillation. Which
    of the following lab values is most important to monitor?
  • A. Platelet count
  • B. Prothrombin time (PT) and International Normalized Ratio (INR)
  • C. Hemoglobin and hematocrit levels
  • D. Serum sodium levels

Answer Keys

  1. B. Social communication
  2. C. Audio cassette
  3. C. Hepatitis B
  4. A. Primary prevention
  5. C. Carbon dioxide
  6. C. Increased respiration rate
  7. D. 280-295 mosl/kg H2O
  8. B. 7.4
  9. B. Maleficence
  10. D. Full glass of water
  11. B. Brachiocephalic artery
  12. D. Vena cava
  13. A. K+
  14. C. Left atrium and left ventricle
  15. C. SA node → AV node → Bundle of His → Purkinje fibers
  16. D. Pulmonary valve
  17. A. Chordae tendineae
  18. B. Cardiogenic shock
  19. D. Listening to lung sounds
  20. B. ST segment depression
  21. D. Exercise ECG test
  22. D. Hypotension
  23. D. Lemonade
  24. D. Chest pain
  25. A. Upright and leaning forward with the arms on the over-the-bed table
  26. C. Generally treated with calcium channel blockers
  27. C. Normal sinus rhythm
  28. D. Procainamide
  29. B. Before each QRS complex
  30. B. Ambulation in the hall every 4 hours
  31. C. Left coronary artery
  32. D. Mitral area
  33. A. Vagus nerve stimulation, causing a decrease in heart rate and cardiac
    contractility
  34. D. Defibrillate the patient
  35. B. Pericardial friction rub
  36. D. Bradycardia
  37. D. Binding to and inhibiting the Na–K ATPase enzyme in cardiac myocytes
  38. C. Use a soft toothbrush for brushing teeth and an electric razor for
    shaving
  39. D. Put the client on ECG monitoring
  40. B. Begin cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR)
  41. C. Terminate a life-threatening arrhythmia
  42. D. Thrombolytics
  43. B. Pulmonary hypertension
  44. B. Tachycardia and decreased blood pressure
  45. B. Jugular vein distention
  46. C. To measure cardiac output and assess fluid status
  47. C. Pericarditis
  48. A. Cuff too large for the arm
  49. B. Monitor potassium levels regularly
  50. B. Prothrombin time (PT) and International Normalized Ratio (INR)

What is intermittent fasting?

Table of Contents(toc)

healthy salad

Introduction (What is intermittent fasting?)

Intermittent fasting (IF) has become popular for its potential health
benefits. However, whether it is actually useful depends on various factors
such as individual goals, lifestyle, and health conditions. Here are some key
points on its usefulness:

Benefits of intermittent fasting

Here are some benefits of Intermittent fasting (IF).
  • Weight Loss
  • Improved Insulin Sensitivity
  • Cellular Repair and Autophagy
  • Mental Clarity and Cognitive Function
  • Hormonal Benefits
  • Heart Health
  • Simplicity and Flexibility
  • Potential Drawbacks
  • Sustainability
  • Scientific Support
Now lets discuss each in details:

1. Weight Loss

  • Supports Calorie Control:
    By restricting the eating window, many people naturally consume fewer
    calories, which can lead to weight loss.
  • Increases Fat Burning:
    Fasting periods trigger hormonal changes that increase fat breakdown and
    use it for energy.

2.
Improved Insulin Sensitivity

  • Helps Manage Blood Sugar:
    Intermittent fasting can improve insulin sensitivity, making it beneficial
    for managing blood sugar levels, particularly for people with Type 2
    diabetes or prediabetes.
  • Reduces Insulin Resistance: It may help reduce the risk of developing insulin resistance, which is
    a key factor in obesity and type 2 diabetes.

3.
Cellular Repair and Autophagy

  • Cellular Maintenance:
    During fasting, the body enters a state of autophagy, where it breaks down
    and removes dysfunctional proteins and cells, promoting cellular repair.
  • Boosts Longevity: Some
    studies suggest that intermittent fasting may contribute to longevity by
    stimulating autophagy and reducing oxidative stress.

4.
Mental Clarity and Cognitive Function

  • Improved Brain Function: Fasting may support brain health by boosting the production of
    brain-derived neurotrophic factor (BDNF), which plays a role in cognitive
    function and mood regulation.
  • Reduced Inflammation:
    Intermittent fasting may help reduce inflammation, which is linked to
    neurological diseases like Alzheimer’s and Parkinson’s.

5. Hormonal Benefits

  • Increases Growth Hormone: Fasting increases the secretion of human growth hormone (HGH), which
    plays a role in fat loss and muscle preservation.
  • Improved Fat Metabolism: It enhances the breakdown of stored fat for energy, making it easier to
    burn fat rather than carbohydrates.

6. Heart Health

  • Reduces Blood Pressure:
    Some studies suggest intermittent fasting can help lower blood pressure
    and reduce the risk of heart disease.
  • Improves Lipid Profiles: IF may reduce LDL cholesterol, triglycerides, and other markers of
    heart disease, contributing to overall cardiovascular health.

7.
Simplicity and Flexibility

  • Easy to Follow: Many
    people find intermittent fasting simple because it doesn’t require complex
    meal plans or calorie counting.
  • Fits Various Lifestyles: It offers flexibility in terms of when to eat, making it easier to
    adopt into different routines.

    8. Sustainability

    • Long-Term Commitment:
      For IF to be effective, it needs to be practiced consistently over time,
      and some individuals may find it difficult to maintain.
    • Possible Plateaus: Some
      people experience weight loss plateaus after extended periods of fasting,
      requiring adjustments in the routine.

    9. Scientific Support

    • Positive Research:
      Numerous studies support the benefits of intermittent fasting for weight
      loss, metabolic health, and disease prevention.
    • More Research Needed:
      While there is promising evidence, more long-term research is needed to
      fully understand the long-term effects of intermittent fasting.

    Potential Drawbacks of Intermittent fasting (IF)

    • Hunger and Cravings:
      Initially, people may struggle with hunger and cravings, which could
      lead to overeating during eating windows.
    • Disrupts Social Life:
      IF may interfere with social gatherings or family meals, as it requires
      strict eating windows.
    • Not Suitable for Everyone: It may not be appropriate for people with certain health conditions
      like eating disorders, low blood pressure, or pregnant and breastfeeding
      women.

    Types of Intermittent Fasting (How to do intermittent fasting?)

    Intermittent fasting includes different strategies, with alternate-day
    fasting and time-restricted feeding (TRF) being two of the most popular
    approaches. Both have been shown to be effective for weight loss, but
    they do not appear to offer significant benefits over other
    calorie-restricting diets.

    Alternate-Day Fasting

    Alternate-day fasting involves alternating between fasting days and
    eating days. On fasting days, a person consumes about 25% of their daily
    caloric needs, while on feast days, they can eat more freely, typically
    around 125% of their caloric needs.

    • Effectiveness for Weight Loss: Studies show that alternate-day fasting is an effective strategy
      for weight reduction. A network meta-analysis of 24 randomized trials
      found that alternate-day fasting was comparable to regular caloric
      energy restriction diets in terms of weight loss.
    • Example Study: In a
      trial involving 100 individuals with obesity, those following
      alternate-day fasting (25% of total energy needs on fast days and 125%
      on feast days) experienced a weight loss of 6.8% of their body weight
      over six months. This was comparable to those following a regular
      calorie restriction diet (75% of energy needs daily), who lost 6.0% of
      their body weight.

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    Time-Restricted Feeding (TRF)

    Time-restricted feeding is a type of intermittent fasting where eating
    is limited to a specific window of time, usually between 8 to 10 hours a
    day (e.g., eating between 12 PM to 8 PM). The extended fasting period
    between meals aligns with natural circadian rhythms and has been
    associated with various health benefits.

    • Simplicity and Benefits: TRF offers a simplified meal-planning approach as it doesn’t
      require calorie counting. The focus is on limiting the eating window,
      which naturally leads to prolonged periods of fasting.
    • Weight Loss and Metabolic Benefits: Short-term studies have suggested that TRF, when aligned with
      circadian rhythms, can help with weight loss and improve metabolic
      parameters, such as insulin sensitivity and fat metabolism.
    • Effectiveness Compared to Calorie Restriction: Some trials have shown that TRF may be beneficial, but its efficacy
      compared to regular calorie restriction remains uncertain. For
      instance, in a randomized trial with 139 adults with obesity,
      participants who followed calorie restriction with TRF (eight
      hours/day) lost 8 kg, while those who followed calorie restriction
      without TRF lost 6.4 kg. However, the difference in weight loss
      between the two groups was not statistically significant at 12 months.

    Mechanisms of Action

    The mechanisms by which intermittent fasting, including TRF, influences
    health are still not completely understood. However, some key factors
    include:

    • Caloric Restriction: Both alternate-day fasting and TRF lead to reduced overall caloric
      intake, contributing to weight loss.
    • Improved Insulin Sensitivity: Intermittent fasting may enhance insulin sensitivity, which can
      lead to better metabolic control and a reduced risk of Type 2
      diabetes.
    • Anti-inflammatory Effects: Both fasting methods may exert anti-inflammatory effects,
      potentially lowering the risk of chronic diseases such as
      cardiovascular disease.

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