Important Health Policies and Acts Nepal

Key Health Policies and Acts in Nepal:

  1. Second Long-Term Health Plan (1997-2017)

  2. New National Health Policy (2071 BS)

  3. Nepal Health Service Act (2053 BS)

    • Regulation (2055 BS)
    • 1st Amendment (2055 BS)
    • 2nd Amendment (2058 BS)
    • 3rd Amendment (2063 BS)
    • 4th Amendment (2069BS)
  4. Nepal Health Professional Council Act (2053 BS)

    • Regulation (2056 BS)
  5. Nepal Medical Council Act (2020 BS)

    • Regulation (2024 BS)
  6. Nepal Nursing Council Act (2052 BS)

  7. Nepal Health Research Council Act (2047 BS)

  8. Infectious Disease Act (2020 BS)

  9. Drugs Act (2035 BS)

  10. Mother’s Milk Substitute Act (2049 BS)

  11. Human Organ Transplant Act (2055 BS)

  12. Safe Abortion Service Process (2060 BS)

  13. B.P. Koirala Institute of Health Sciences (BPKIHS) Act (2049 BS)

  14. National Academy for Medical Sciences (NAMS) Act (2063 BS)

  15. Patan Academy of Health Sciences (PAHS) Act (2064 BS)

Indications of H. pylori testing & treatment

Indications for H. pylori testing and treatment (short list)

Groups to test and treat for H. pylori infection:
• Peptic ulcer disease: prior history or active disease
• Margina zone B-cell lymphoma, MALT type
• Uninvesigated dyspepsia in patients who are under the age of 60 years
– In high-risk populations for gastric cancer, test and treat at age 45-50 years
• Functional dyspepsia
• Adult household members of individuals who have a positive non-serological test for H. pylori
• Patients taking long-term NSAIDs or starting long-term treatment with low-dose aspırın
• Patients with unexplained iron deficiency anemia
• Patients with idiopathic (autoimmune) thrombocytopenic purpura
• Primary and secondary prevention of gastric adenocarcinoma
-Current or history of gastric premalignant conditions (GPMC)
– Current or history of early gastric cancer resection
– Current or prior history of gastric adenocarcinoma
– Patients with gastric adenomas or hyperplastic polyps
Persons with a first degree relative with gastric cancerd
– Individuals at increased risk for gastric cancer including certain non-White racial/ethnic groups, immigrants from high gastric cancer incidence regions/countries, hereditary cancer syndromes associated with an increased risk for gastric cancer
– Patients with autoimmune gastritis
“In the absence of contraindications, H. pylori treatment should be offered to all patents with actve H. pylori infection, as indicated by a positive non-serological test.
Serological testing is not recommended in low-prevalence populat ons in the abserce of a high pre-test probability (e.g., peptic ulcer).
“GPVMC includes atrophic gastritis, intest nal metaplasia, and dysplasia.
Patents with adenomas and hyperpastc polyps often have associated GPMC.
Note: 
  • A decision to test and treat should follow shared cecision-making between the patient and provider.
  • Don’t decide yourself for H pylori test rather discuss with your doctor or healthcare provider for possible indication.

NNC License and TU Staff Nurse Examination Model Question Set


  1. How many bones are there in human vertebra?

    • 25

    • 64

    • 33

    • 80

  2. Which of the following chamber of heart pumps oxygenated blood towards the aorta?

    • Right atrium

    • Right ventricle

    • Left atrium

    • Left ventricle

  3. The normal WBC count is……..

    • 4000-11000

    • 400000-900000

    • 150000-400000

    • 4.5-6.5 *10^6

  4. The process of blood cells formation is called……..

    • Thrombocytosis

    • Leucocytosis

    • Erythropoiesis

    • Hemolysis

  5. The normal intake of water per day is………

    • 1000ml

    • 2000ml

    • 1500ml

    • 2500ml

  6. Which type of drug is mebendazole?

    • Antifungal

    • Antihelminitic

    • Antibactericidal

    • Antiviral

  7. The safest route for injection is……..

    • Intravenous

    • Intraperitoneal

    • Intrapleural

    • Intracardinal

  8. What is the pressure of vitreous humor in eyes?

    • 5-10 mm of Hg

    • 15-20 mm of Hg

    • 10-15 mm of Hg

    • 20-25 mm of Hg

  9. The most important electrolyte of intracellular fluid is…….

    • Sodium

    • Calcium

    • Potassium

    • Chloride

  10. The beta cell of islets of Langerhans secretes………hormone.

    • Glucagon

    • Glycogen

    • Insulin

    • Amylase

  11. A patient is scheduled for a urinary catheterization, in which position should the nurse place the patient…….

    • Dorsal recumbent position

    • Supine position

    • Trendelenburg position

    • Prone position

  12. Tachycardia means pulse rate……….

    • Below 60

    • Above 100

    • Below 100

    • Above 60

  13. A patient is scheduled for NG feeding. In which position should the nurse place the patient……..

    • Low Fowler’s position

    • Trendelenburg

    • Supine position

    • Side lying position

  14. The fastest route to give medicine is………

    • IV (intravenous)

    • ID (intradermal)

    • IM (intramuscular)

    • SC (subcutaneous)

  15. Nosocomial infection is the infection acquired by………

    • Infected person

    • Community

    • Hospital

    • None of the above

  16. Nepal Nursing Council was established in……

    • 193 BS

    • 2053 BS

    • 1954 BS

    • 2054 BS

  17. A nurse administers an intravenous solution of 0.45 sodium chloride. With respect to human blood cell, to which category of fluid does this solution belong?

    • Isotonic

    • Hypotonic

    • Isometric

    • Hypertonic

  18. A patient is to have gastric gavage. In which position should the nurse place the client when the gavage tube is being inserted…………

    • Supine position

    • High-Fowler’s position

    • Mid-Fowler’s position

    • Trendelenburg position

  19. Which electrolyte of intracellular fluid is the most important?

    • Sodium chloride

    • Chloride

    • Calcium

    • Potassium

  20. Sterile urine specimen is collected from…………

    • From clean bedpan or urinal

    • The first small amount of urine voided

    • Urine voided at midstream

    • All of the above

  21. A patient is having dyspnea. To facilitate respiration, the nurse would….

    • Remove pillow from under the head

    • Elevate the head of the body

    • Elevate the foot of the body

    • Take the blood pressure

  22. A patient has an abnormal, unexpected response to a drug this is defined as…….

    • Drug tolerance

    • A cumulative effect

    • Idiosyncratic effect

    • Anaphylactic

  23. You are to administer a medication using a nasogastric tube. Before giving medicine, you should…….

    • Crush the enteric coated pill for mixing in a liquid

    • Flush open the tube with 60ml of very warm water

    • Check for proper placement of NG tube

    • Take the patient’s vital sign

  24. Vitamin K, 10mg given IM, is ordered vitamin K is available as 5mg/ml. how much would the nurse administers?

    • 1 ml

    • 2 ml

    • 3 ml

    • 4 ml

  25. While administering a blood transfusion, when would the nurse assess the patient for a blood transfusion reaction?

    • Every 15 minutes after the infusion is started

    • After the blood is all infused

    • Every hour

    • Every 15 minutes

  26. When assessing a patient at risk for pressure ulcer formation, which site would the nurse identify as being most common?

    • Occipital area

    • Sacrum

    • Sternum

    • Humerus

  27. A patient is receiving 100ml of IV fluid per 24 hours. Using an IV set with drop rate of 15 drops/ml the nurse should plan to regulate the IV is………

    • 10 drops/min

    • 15 drops/min

    • 20 drops/min

    • 30 drops/min

  28. The identification of client’s health needs occurs in nursing process step of………..

    • Planning

    • Evaluation

    • Assessment

    • Implementation

  29. Oxygen, Food and water are which of the following need according to Maslow’s hierarchy of human needs……

    • Physiological needs

    • Safety and security need

    • Love and belonging

    • Self esteem

  30. When you find a person lying on the ground with a cardiopulmonary arrest, what will be the immediate action to be taken?

    • Assess responsiveness

    • Assess the airway

    • Assess circulation

    • Assess breathing

  31. ICN (International Council of Nurses) was established in………

    • 1899 A.D

    • 1888 A.D

    • 1898 A.D

    • 1889 A.D

  32. NLEN (National Licensure Examination for Nurses) is conducted by………

    • NNC

    • ICN

    • NAN

    • INC

  33. If heat is transferred from one object to another by direct contact, it is……

    • Convection

    • Conduction

    • Evaporation

    • Radiation

  34. When the elevated temperature fluctuates wildly but does not reach normal levels between fluctuation is called………

    • Constant fever

    • Remittent fever

    • Intermittent fever

    • Relapsing fever

  35. Type of abnormal breathing which is the combination of hyperpnea and apnea………

    • Dyspnea

    • Orthopnea

    • Cheyne-Stokes breathing

    • Asphyxia

  36. A client has temperature 104⁰F. This temperature is equal to……………

    • 38⁰C

    • 40⁰C

    • 41⁰C

    • 42⁰C

  37. A patient is receiving blood transfusion, if an allergic reaction to the blood develops on patient, the nurse’s first intervention should be…….

    • Call the physician

    • Stop the blood immediately

    • Slow the flow rate of blood

    • Administer anti-allergic drug

  38. Which is the unfavorable factor affecting wound healing?

    • Young age

    • Hemorrhage

    • Intake of protein, calcium, vitamin C

    • Blood supply to the injured part

  39. For safe administration of drugs, the nurse should follow right …

    • 4 rights

    • 5 rights

    • 6 rights

    • 10 rights

  40. For safe administration of drugs, the nurse should follow right …

    • Gluteus medius

    • Deltoid muscle

    • Gluteus minimus

    • Vastus lateralis

  41. The process which makes inanimate objects safer to be handled by health personnel before cleaning is………….

    • Sterilization

    • High level disinfection

    • Decontamination

    • Cleaning

  42. Recommended temperature, time pressure for autoclaving (steam under pressure)

    • 120⁰C (250⁰F), at 106kpa (15 Ibs/in 2) for 30 minutes

    • 110⁰C at 106 kpa (15 Ibs/in 2) for 30 minutes

    • 100⁰C at 106 kpa (15 Ibs/in 2) for 30 minutes

    • 90⁰C 106 kpa (15 Ibs/in 2) for 30 minutes

  43. If nurse is administering a cleansing enema to a client enema to a client with a fecal impaction. Before administering the enema the nurse places the client in which position?

    • Left Sims position

    • Right Sims position

    • On the left side of the body, with the head of the bed elevated at 45 degree

    • None

  44. Who will be third line manager for you at PHC?

    • Self

    • Medical superintendent

    • Medical officer

    • Chief of T/OH

  45. A nurse is preparing to insert a nasogastric tube in an adult client. To determine the measurements of the length of the tube to be inserted, the nurse should………..

    • Mark the tube at 10 inches

    • Mark the tube at 32 inches

    • Place the tube at the tip of the nose and measures by extending the tube to the earlobe and then down to the xiphoid process

    • Place the tube at the tip of the nose and measure by extending the tube earlobe and then down to the sternum

  46. Physician prescribed a hypotonic solution (IV) for a client. Which of the following IV solutions would the nurse except to prescribe………

    • 5% dextrose in water

    • 0.45% sodium chloride

    • 10% dextrose in water

    • 0.9% sodium chloride

  47. The nurse has obtained a unit of blood from the blood bank and has checked the blood bag properly with another nurse. Just before beginning the transfusion, the nurse assess which of the following items?

    • Vital sign

    • Skin color

    • Urine output

    • Latest hematocrit level

  48. Best type of solution to use for the irrigation of urinary catheter…

    • Distilled water

    • Normal saline

    • Tap water

    • Warm water

  49. The most important way to prevent the spread of infection is………….

    • Wearing gloves

    • Hand washing

    • Wearing mask

    • Wearing coat

  50. Which instrument is used to test the client’s hearing?

    • Stethoscope

    • Tuning fork

    • Otoscope

    • Reflex hammers

  51. When is international nurse’s day celebrated?

    • 12th May

    • 12th March

    • 2nd May

    • 31st July

  52. A nurse is preparing a preoperative client for transfer to the operating room. The nurse should take which action in the care of this client at this time?

    • Ensure that the client has voided

    • Administer all the daily medications

    • Practice postoperative breathing exercises

    • Verify that the client has not eaten for the last 24 hours

  53. The nurse is performing an abdominal assessment the nurse performs which assessment at first…..

    • Auscultation

    • Inspection

    • Palpation

    • Percussion

  54. While giving an intradermal injection the needle should be held at ……

    • 15⁰

    • 45⁰

    • 30⁰

    • 90⁰

  55. Appropriate temperature of solution prepared for sitz-bath should be………

    • 105-110⁰ F

    • 100-105⁰F

    • 110-115⁰F

    • 115-120⁰F

  56. The nurse determines that a client is having a transfusion reaction. After the nurse stops the transfusion, which action should immediately be taken next………

    • Remove IV line

    • Run normal saline at a keep vein open rate

    • Run a solution of 5% dextrose in water

    • Obtain a culture of the tip of catheter device removed from the client

  57. When suctioning an unconscious client, which nursing intervention should the nurse prioritize in maintaining cerebral perfusion….

    • Administer diuretics

    • Administer analgesics

    • Provide hygiene

    • Hyper oxygenate before

  58. Savlon is……..

    • Cetrimide

    • Chlorhexidine

    • Chloroxylenol

    • A and B

  59. Scald is a burn caused by……….

    • Dry heat

    • Radiation

    • Moist heat

    • Friction

  60. When you perform CPR on an unresponsive adult, you should correctly assess the pulse of which location?

    • Over the radial artery

    • Over the carotid artery

    • Over the brachial artery

    • Over the temporal artery

  61. Which of the following would the nurse use as the most reliable indicator of a patient’s fluid balance status?

    • Intake and output

    • Skin turgor

    • Complete blood count

    • Daily weight

  62. Health policy formation in Nepal since……

    • 1991 AD

    • 1998 AD

    • 1995 AD

    • 1999 AD

  63. Trachoma is a disease of………….

    • Eye lid

    • Cornea

    • Conjunctiva

    • Lachrymal gland

  64. Koplik’s spot is the clinical feature of……….

    • Measles

    • Tuberculosis

    • Chicken pox

    • Leprosy

  65. BCG vaccine is against………..

    • Measles

    • Diphtheria

    • Tuberculosis

    • Whooping cough

  66. DOTS stand for………….

    • Directly observed treatment short course

    • Direct observed treatment short course

    • Direct observed treatment system

    • Directly observed treatment system

  67. The vector for malaria is………….

    • Plasmodium vivax

    • Plasmodium falciparum

    • Plasmodium malaria

    • Female anopheles mosquito

  68. HIV/AIDS is caused by a………….

    • Retro virus

    • Rhabdo virus

    • Rota virus

    • Pox virus

  69. Which of the following is waterborne disease?

  70. Kala-azar is caused by…………vector

    • Malaria

    • Sand fly

    • Housefly

    • Bee

  71. Syphilis is caused by………….

    • Salmonella Typhi

    • Neisseria gonorrhea

    • Treponema pallidum

    • Streptococcus

  72. What type of vaccination is given against measles?

    • Live attenuated

    • Killed

    • Toxoid

    • Inactive

  73. Which of the following is principle of primary health care?

    • Health education

    • Dental health

    • Mental health

    • Community participation

  74. Oral contraceptives act by……………

    • Preventing ovulation

    • Making endometrial non-reactive to embryo

    • Making inactive to sperm

    • Inhibiting sperm penetration to the ovum

  75. The ages of child to receive DPT vaccine are………….

    • 6 week, 10 week, 14 week

    • 6 week, 7 week, 8 week

    • 6 week, 7 week, 8 week

    • 1 week, 2 week, 3 week

  76. When was the ALMA Ata conference held?

    • 1972

    • 1988

    • 1978

    • 1990

  77. Which of the following comes under STDs disease?

    • HIV/AIDS

    • Typhoid

    • Diarrhea

    • Leprosy

  78. When oral contraceptives are prescribed for a patient, the nurse should teach the client about the potential of developing……….

    • Cervicitis

    • Fibrocystic disease

    • Ovarian cyst

    • Break through bleeding

  79. Which of the following are not the 6 killer diseases?

    • ARI

    • Diarrhea

    • Measles

    • Meningitis

  80. When emergency contraceptive should be taken after the unprotected sexual intercourse?

    • Within 24 hrs

    • Within 48 hrs

    • Within 36 hrs

    • Within 72 hrs

  81. What is the best method of solid waste disposal?

    • Composting

    • Incineration

    • Dumping

    • Burial

  82. Which of the following permanent family planning method requires contraceptives at least for 20 ejaculation surgery?

    • Vasectomy

    • Laparoscopy

    • Minilap

    • Norplant

  83. The comprehensive assessment of the health status of an entire community is called……….

    • Community diagnosis

    • Micro-teaching

    • Home visit

    • Health education

  84. Which type of approach is used in home visit?

    • Individual approach

    • Group approach

    • Mass approach

    • Media approach

  85. Which of following contraceptives is excluded in the outreach clinic?

    • Oral pills

    • ORS packet

    • Condom

    • Norplant

  86. The cases occurs irregular haphazardly form time to time and generally infrequently is…………

    • Epidemic

    • Sporadic

    • Pandemic

    • None

NNC License Model Questions Set

Table of Contents(toc)

NNC License Model Questions Set (May 2025)

NNC License Model Questions Set (May 2025)

  1. What is the primary electrolyte found in intracellular fluid?

    a) Sodium

    b) Calcium

    c) Potassium

    d) Chloride

  2. What is the normal count of white blood cells?

    a) 4000-11000

    b) 400000-900000

    c) 150000-400000

    d) 4.5-6.5 *10^6

  3. What is the safest route for administering an injection?

    a) Intravenous

    b) Intraperitoneal

    c) Intrapleural

    d) Intracardinal

  4. What is the term for the formation of blood cells?

    a) Thrombocytosis

    b) Leucocytosis

    c) Erythropoiesis

    d) Hemolysis

  5. Which chamber of the heart pumps oxygenated blood to the aorta?

    a) Right atrium

    b) Right ventricle

    c) Left atrium

    d) Left ventricle

  6. What is the pressure of vitreous humor in the eyes?

    a) 5-10 mm Hg

    b) 15-20 mm Hg

    c) 10-15 mm Hg

    d) 20-25 mm Hg

  7. How many bones are in the human vertebra?

    a) 25

    b) 64

    c) 33

    d) 80

  8. Which type of drug is mebendazole?

    a) Antifungal

    b) Antihelminthic

    c) Antibactericidal

    d) Antiviral

  9. What is the normal daily water intake?

    a) 1000 ml

    b) 2000 ml

    c) 1500 ml

    d) 2500 ml

  10. Which hormone is secreted by the beta cells of the islets of Langerhans?

    a) Glucagon

    b) Glycogen

    c) Insulin

    d) Amylase

  11. In which position should a patient be placed for a urinary catheterization?

    a) Dorsal recumbent position

    b) Supine position

    c) Trendelenburg position

    d) Prone position

  12. What is the fastest route to administer medication?

    a) IV (Intravenous)

    b) ID (Intradermal)

    c) IM (Intramuscular)

    d) SC (Subcutaneous)

  13. What is the normal body temperature in Celsius for 104°F?

    a) 38°C

    b) 40°C

    c) 41°C

    d) 42°C

  14. What is the purpose of administering an intravenous solution of 0.45 sodium chloride?

    a) Isotonic

    b) Hypotonic

    c) Isometric

    d) Hypertonic

  15. What is the most common site for pressure ulcer formation?

    a) Occipital area

    b) Sacrum

    c) Sternum

    d) Humerus

  16. What is the most important step to prevent the spread of infection?

    a) Wearing gloves

    b) Hand washing

    c) Wearing a mask

    d) Wearing a coat

  17. When is International Nurses Day celebrated?

    a) 12th May

    b) 12th March

    c) 2nd May

    d) 31st July

  18. What is the term for an abnormal, unexpected response to a drug?

    a) Drug tolerance

    b) Cumulative effect

    c) Idiosyncratic effect

    d) Anaphylactic shock

  19. What type of vaccine is given against measles?

    a) Live attenuated

    b) Killed

    c) Toxoid

    d) Inactive

  20. What is the best method for solid waste disposal?

    a) Composting

    b) Incineration

    c) Dumping

    d) Burial

  21. What is the standard temperature and pressure for autoclaving?

    a) 120°C (250°F), at 106 kPa (15 Ibs/in²) for 30 minutes

    b) 110°C at 106 kPa (15 Ibs/in²) for 30 minutes

    c) 100°C at 106 kPa (15 Ibs/in²) for 30 minutes

    d) 90°C at 106 kPa (15 Ibs/in²) for 30 minutes

  22. What does DOTS stand for in tuberculosis treatment?

    a) Directly Observed Treatment Short-course

    b) Direct Observed Treatment Short-course

    c) Direct Observed Treatment System

    d) Directly Observed Treatment System

  23. What is the most reliable indicator of a patient’s fluid balance status?

    a) Intake and output

    b) Skin turgor

    c) Complete blood count

    d) Daily weight

  24. What type of breathing is a combination of hyperpnoea and apnoea?

    a) Dyspnea

    b) Orthopnea

    c) Cheyne-Stokes breathing

    d) Asphyxia

  25. What is the role of oral contraceptives?

    a) Preventing ovulation

    b) Making the endometrial lining non-reactive to the embryo

    c) Making sperm inactive

    d) Inhibiting sperm penetration of the ovum

  26. What is the primary vector for malaria?

    a) Plasmodium vivax

    b) Plasmodium falciparum

    c) Plasmodium malariae

    d) Female Anopheles mosquito

  27. What is the most effective way to collect a sterile urine specimen?

    a) From a clean bedpan or urinal

    b) From the first small amount of urine voided

    c) From urine voided midstream

    d) All of the above

  28. What is the recommended position for a patient undergoing nasogastric feeding?

    a) Low Fowler’s position

    b) Trendelenburg

    c) Supine position

    d) Side-lying position

  29. When administering a blood transfusion, when should the nurse assess the patient for a transfusion reaction?

    a) Every 15 minutes after infusion starts

    b) After the blood is fully infused

    c) Every hour

    d) Every 15 minutes

  30. What is the first action when encountering a person with cardiopulmonary arrest?

    a) Assess responsiveness

    b) Assess the airway

    c) Assess circulation

    d) Assess breathing


Correct Answers:

  1. c) Potassium
  2. a) 4000-11000
  3. a) Intravenous
  4. c) Erythropoiesis
  5. d) Left ventricle
  6. b) 15-20 mm Hg
  7. c) 33
  8. b) Antihelminthic
  9. b) 2000 ml
  10. c) Insulin
  11. a) Dorsal recumbent position
  12. a) IV (Intravenous)
  13. b) 40°C
  14. b) Hypotonic
  15. b) Sacrum
  16. b) Hand washing
  17. a) 12th May
  18. c) Idiosyncratic effect
  19. a) Live attenuated
  20. b) Incineration
  21. a) 120°C (250°F), at 106 kPa (15 Ibs/in²) for 30 minutes
  22. a) Directly Observed Treatment Short-course
  23. d) Daily weight
  24. c) Cheyne-Stokes breathing
  25. a) Preventing ovulation
  26. d) Female Anopheles mosquito
  27. c) From urine voided midstream
  28. a) Low Fowler’s position
  29. a) Every 15 minutes after infusion starts
  30. a) Assess responsiveness

Nursing MCQs Model Question (VVIMP)

Table of Contents(toc)


Important Nursing MCQs Model Questions

  1. What is the pressure of vitreous humor in the eyes?

  • 5-10 mm of HG

  • 15-20 mm of HG

  • 10-15 mm of HG

  • 20-25 mm of HG

  1. How many bones are present in the human vertebra?

  • 25

  • 64

  • 33

  • 80

  1. The process of blood cell formation is known as…

  • Thrombocytosis

  • Leucocytosis

  • Erythropoiesis

  • Hemolysis

  1. Which of the following is the most important electrolyte of intracellular fluid?

  • Sodium

  • Calcium

  • Potassium

  • Chloride

  1. The safest route for injection is…

  • Intravenous

  • Intraperitoneal

  • Intrapleural

  • Intracardial

  1. The normal WBC count is…

  • 4000-11000

  • 400000-900000

  • 150000-400000

  • 4.5-6.5 *10⁶

  1. A nurse is administering a hypotonic IV solution. Which of the following is the correct solution?

  • 5% dextrose in water

  • 0.45% sodium chloride

  • 10% dextrose in water

  • 0.9% sodium chloride

  1. What is the normal intake of water per day?

  • 1000 ml

  • 2000 ml

  • 1500 ml

  • 2500 ml

  1. The beta cells of Islets of Langerhans secrete which hormone?

  • Glucagon

  • Glycogen

  • Insulin

  • Amylase

  1. Which chamber of the heart pumps oxygenated blood to the aorta?

  • Right atrium

  • Right ventricle

  • Left atrium

  • Left ventricle

  1. A patient is scheduled for urinary catheterization. In which position should the nurse place the patient?

  • Dorsal recumbent position

  • Supine position

  • Trendelenburg position

  • Prone position

  1. The fastest route for administering medicine is…

  • IV (Intravenous)

  • ID (Intradermal)

  • IM (Intramuscular)

  • SC (Subcutaneous)

  1. When is International Nurses Day celebrated?

  • 12th May

  • 12th March

  • 2nd May

  • 31st July

  1. The most effective way to prevent the spread of infection is…

  • Wearing gloves

  • Hand washing

  • Wearing a mask

  • Wearing a coat

  1. A patient is having dyspnea. To facilitate respiration, the nurse would…

  • Remove the pillow from under the head

  • Elevate the head of the bed

  • Elevate the foot of the bed

  • Take the blood pressure

Please comment down the answers below.

Here’s the answer key for the provided MCQs:

  1. 15-20 mm of HG
  2. 33
  3. Erythropoiesis
  4. Potassium
  5. Intravenous
  6. 4000-11000
  7. 0.45% sodium chloride
  8. 2000 ml
  9. Insulin
  10. Left ventricle
  11. Dorsal recumbent position
  12. IV (Intravenous)
  13. 12th May
  14. Hand washing
  15. Elevate the head of the bed

High yeild dermatology notes

Condyloma Acuminatum (Genital Warts)

Caused by Human Papillomavirus (HPV).
Exophytic, cauliflower-like lesions.
Typically found on moist surfaces: perianal area, vaginal introitus, vagina,
labia, and vulva.
Can also occur on dry surfaces like the shaft of the penis.
Condyloma lata: Flat papules of secondary syphilis, painless ulcers.
Chancroid: Caused by Haemophilus ducreyi, characterized by painful ulcers.

Curable Non-Ulcerative STDs

Gonorrhea
Chlamydia
Trichomoniasis

Vaginitis

Most common cause: Candida.
Second most common cause: Trichomonas vaginalis.
Vulvar Intraepithelial Disease/Pre-malignant Lesion
Paget’s Disease.
Most common lesion of the vulva: Condyloma acuminata (Genital warts).

Bartholin Cyst

Results from obstruction of the Bartholin duct.
Soft, painless mass.
Most commonly infected by Gonorrhea, less commonly by Staphylococcus aureus.
Infected cyst is called Bartholin abscess, which is painful.

Bacterial Vaginosis vs. Trichomonas Vaginalis

Bacterial Vaginosis

Clue cells and fishy smell, painless.
Thin, grayish-white discharge, often fishy-smelling after sexual intercourse.
Amsel’s Criteria (requires at least 3 out of 4):
Thin, homogeneous discharge coating the vaginal walls.
Clue cells on microscopy (vaginal epithelial cells covered with bacteria).
Vaginal pH > 4.5.
Positive “whiff test” (fishy odor when 10% KOH is added).
Nugent scoring (Gram stain-based scoring system) for a definitive diagnosis.
Can cause early miscarriage and pre-term birth (most common cause).

Trichomonas Vaginalis

Microscopic examination: Wet mount reveals motile T. vaginalis (pear-shaped
with flagella).
NAAT (Nucleic Acid Amplification Test) for high sensitivity and specificity.
Per speculum: Erythematous plaques, punctate “strawberry cervix.”
Normal pH.
Symptoms: Pain during intercourse, burning sensation, itching.
Offensive, foul-smelling, green/gray/pink frothy, yellow vaginal discharge.
Treat with Metronidazole for both partners.
Can cause pregnancy complications, including low birth weight and premature
rupture of membranes.
Comparison of Bacterial Vaginosis and Trichomonas Vaginalis
Feature Bacterial Vaginosis Trichomonas Vaginalis
Cause Overgrowth of anaerobic bacteria Trichomonas vaginalis (protozoan parasite)
Discharge Characteristics Thin, grayish-white, homogeneous, fishy odor Green, gray, pink frothy, yellow discharge
Pain/Itching Painless Painful intercourse, burning sensation, itching
Microscopic Findings Clue cells (vaginal epithelial cells covered with bacteria) Motile pear-shaped organisms with flagella
pH > 4.5 Normal pH
Diagnostic Test Amsel’s criteria, Nugent scoring (Gram stain) NAAT (Nucleic Acid Amplification Test), Wet mount microscopy
Treatment Metronidazole or Clindamycin Metronidazole (both partners)
Impact on Pregnancy Can cause early miscarriage and pre-term birth Low birth weight, premature rupture of membranes

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Spinal Reflexes and their roots

Deep tendon reflexes roots

  • Ankle jerk: S1, S_{2}
  • Knee jerk: L_{3} L_{4}
  • Biceps jerk: C_{5} , C_{6}
  • Triceps jerk: C_{7} C_{8}
  • Radial jerk: C_{6}
  • Jaw jerk: Pons

Superficial reflexes roots

  • Plantar reflex: S_{1} S_{2}
  • Abdominal reflex: Gamma_{7} – T_{11}
  • Cremasteric reflex: L_{1}

Model Question 

24. Inverse supinator jerk is:
a. C5, C6
с. 15,51
b. C6,C7
d. L4, S1
Ans: ‘a’ c5, c6
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