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WBC-White blood cells  MCQs regarding wbc NNC License Preparation Lecture Recorded Videos

RBC revision class

WBC stands for White Blood Cells, which are a component of the immune system responsible for defending the body against infections and diseases.

Normal character of WBC

• Anemia classification
• Anemia causes
• Treatment of anemia?

Introduction

WBC= white blood cells

WBC Types normal

• AKA-> leukocytes
• Leuko=white
• Normal count? 4-11
• Increased count=leukocytosis
• Decreased count= leukopenia

Types Normal character of WBC

• Granulocytes
• Neutrophils
• Basophils
• Eosinophils
• Agranulocytes
• Lymphocytes
• Monocytes

Neutrophils

• 40-70% of total WBC in blood
• Also called polymorphonuclear cells
• Have multilobed nucleus
• Job description: Phagocytosis and killing of pathogen
• Have enzyme for digestion in their granules

1. Neutrophilia- in infection
2. Leukemia in cancer (hematological malignancy)

Eosinohils 

• 1-4% of total WBC
• Destroy parasites (helminths)
• Increases in
• allergic conditions
• Parasitic infestation
• Aasthma
• Allergic rhinitis
• Urticaria etc
• Degrade histamine
• They stain by eosin pigment in H&E stain so called eosinophil

Basophil 

• Less than 1%
• Role in anti-inflammatory process
• Resemble in structure of mast cell of the connective tissues
• Have IgE receptor in their cell surface
• Secrete histamine leading to IgE mediated immune reaction(type I hypersensitivity)

Lymphocytes

• 20-40% of total WBC
• Types
• B lymphocytes (maturation in 
• bone marrow then goes to secondary lymphoid tissues)

T lymphocytes (maturation/activation in thymus)

B-lymphocytes

• Humoral immune response
• They differentiate into plasma cells and memory cells
• Secrete/synthesize antibodies
• Remember antigen for long run

Immunization?

T-lymphocytes

• Cell mediated immune response
• Have t-cell receptors
• Different types according to receptors
• CD4-helper, CD8-cytotoxic, memory t-celletc
• They recognize and destroy antigen/viruses

Monocytes 

• 2-8 % of total WBCs
• If they go to the tissue they change into the macrophages 
• Macrophges are antigen presenting cells-process the antigen
• Osteoclasts, Kupffer cells, mesangial cells, microglial cells, sinusoidal cells, histocytes all are monocytes 

NK cells

• Role in virus infected cell elimination
• Cancecr cell killing
• Help neutrophils and macrophages

Multiple Choice Questions in WBC

1. The average life span of WBC is: 

• 2 to 4 hours 
• 2 to 4 days 
• 120 days 
• 365  days

Ans: b (2 to 4 days)

2. Leukemia normally means:

• Excessive production of RBC
• Excessive production of Platelets 
• Excessive production of WBC
• Reduction in number of WBC

Ans: c (Excessive production of WBC)

3. The process of development and maturation of WBC is known as: 

• Erythropoiesis 
• Hematopoiesis
• Leucopoiesis 
• Neuropoiesis 

Ans: c ( Leucopoiesis)

4. In adults, WBCs count should be…………………… of blood.

• 1000-2500/mm3
• 2500-3000/mm3
• 3000-3500/mm3
• 4000-11000/mm3

Ans: d (4000- 11000/mm3)

5. White Blood Cells are also known as ……………….. blood cells.

• Colorless
• Red 
• Black 
• Green 

Ans: a (Colorless)

6. The basophils of white blood cells liberates…………….

• Heparin
• Serotonin 
• Histamine 
• All of these 

Ans: d (all of these)

7. Which of the following is correct subtype of lymphocytes?

• G cell
• P cell
• T cell
• U cell 
• Ans: c (T cell)

8. Lymphocytes and phagocytes are the types of 

• Erythrocytes 
• Leukocytes 
• Platelets 
• Antibodies 

Ans: b ( Leukocytes)

9. What do WBCs do?

•  Carry oxygen from the lungs.
• Carry waste products from the cells.
• Fight against infection.
• Help stop bleeding by forming clots. 

Ans: c ( fight against infection) 

10. What are neutrophils?

• Immature Red Blood Cell
• A type of White Blood Cell
• A type of Platelet
• A type of Bacteria
• Ans: b (A type of White Blood Cell)

11. What is severe neutropenia?

• An absolute neutrophil count (ANC) of less than 500
• An ANC of less than 1000
• An ANC of less than 50
• An ANC of less than 25

Ans: a (An ANC of less than 500)

Video inWBC lecture for NHPC & NNC license examination

Menstrual cups tips and tricks for old and new users 2025

Mastering Menstrual Cups: Essential Tips and Tricks for New and Experienced Users in 2023

Table of Contents (toc)

Menstrual cups tips

Menstrual cups have gained immense popularity in recent years for their eco-friendly nature, cost-effectiveness, and convenience. Whether you’re a seasoned user or new to the world of menstrual cups, there are always helpful tips and tricks to enhance your experience. In this article, we’ll share valuable insights and practical advice to help both old and new users make the most out of their menstrual cup journey in 2023. Let’s dive in!

Read my friend’s blog: doctorhealthrx.com

Choose the right cup:

Finding the perfect fit is crucial for a comfortable and leak-free experience. Consider factors such as size, firmness, and the cup’s capacity to select a cup that suits your body and flow.

Sterilize before first use:

Before using a new cup or after a long break, it’s essential to sterilize it by boiling it in water for a few minutes. This ensures optimal hygiene and cleanliness.

Practice different folding techniques:

Experiment with various folding techniques, such as the C-fold, punch-down fold, or 7-fold, to find the one that is most comfortable and provides easy insertion.

Relax and take your time:

Inserting a menstrual cup may require a learning curve. Be patient, relax your pelvic muscles, and take your time to find a technique that works best for you.

Locate your cervix:

Understanding the position of your cervix can help determine the cup’s placement. Some cups work better for high cervixes, while others are ideal for low cervixes. Explore and adjust accordingly.

Check the suction:

Once the cup is inserted, ensure a proper seal by rotating it or gently tugging the stem. You should feel resistance, indicating a secure suction. This prevents leaks and ensures a snug fit.

Trim the stem if needed:

If you find the stem of your cup protruding or causing discomfort, it’s safe to trim it to a length that feels comfortable for you. However, ensure not to cut too much as it can make removal challenging.

Empty and clean regularly:

Menstrual cups can be worn for up to 12 hours, but the frequency of emptying depends on your flow. Empty and rinse the cup with water every 4-8 hours to maintain hygiene.

Choose the right removal technique:

To remove the cup, use your pelvic muscles to push it lower and reach the base. Pinch the base to release the suction and gently wiggle the cup out. Don’t rush the process; take your time.

Clean and sanitize between cycles:

Between menstrual cycles, thoroughly clean and sanitize your cup. Follow the manufacturer’s instructions or use a specialized cup cleanser to ensure optimal hygiene.

Troubleshoot leaks:

If you experience leaks, check the cup’s position, ensure a proper seal, or consider trying a different cup size or shape that suits your body and flow.

Be prepared when in public:

Carry a water bottle or wipes in your bag for easy cleaning when emptying your cup in public restrooms without a sink nearby.

Overcome odor concerns:

To minimize any potential odor, rinse your cup with cold water before cleaning it with warm water and mild soap. You can also soak it in a mixture of water and vinegar.

Stay active with a cup:

Unlike pads and tampons, menstrual cups are suitable for various physical activities, including swimming, yoga, and sports. Once properly inserted, they provide reliable protection without movement restrictions.

Find your favorite folding and insertion method:

Experiment with different folding techniques and insertion angles to find the most comfortable and effective method for you. Some find it easier to insert while squatting or sitting on the toilet.

Use water-based lubricant if needed:

If you experience dryness or discomfort during insertion, applying a water-based lubricant on the rim of the cup can ease the process.

Embrace the learning process:

Remember, using a menstrual cup may require a few cycles to get comfortable and confident. Don’t get discouraged if you encounter initial challenges. It’s a journey worth embracing.

Join supportive communities:

Connect with online communities, forums, or social media groups dedicated to menstrual cup users. You can learn from others’ experiences, seek advice, and share your own tips and tricks.

Consider backup options:

During the learning phase or on heavy flow days, you may want to wear a panty liner or period underwear as a backup until you gain more confidence in your cup.

Replace as needed:

Menstrual cups are durable and can last for several years with proper care. However, if you notice any signs of wear and tear, such as discoloration or a change in texture, it’s time to replace your cup.

mens cup insert and removal tips

Conclusion:

Whether you’re a new or experienced menstrual cup user, these tips and tricks will help you navigate the world of menstrual cups with confidence and ease in 2023. Remember, each person’s experience is unique, so don’t hesitate to experiment, seek guidance from others, and make adjustments that work best for your body and flow. Embrace the freedom, comfort, and eco-friendliness that menstrual cups offer, and enjoy a more sustainable and hassle-free period experience.

Read periods hacks tips here

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Sterilize before first use:
Practice different folding techniques:
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NHPC general medicine Digestive system MCQ 2081 : past questions with answer 

Here are some multiple-choice questions (MCQs) regarding the digestive system:

answer in the end

NHPC Digestive system MCQ 2080

1. What is the primary function of the digestive system?

   a) Pump blood throughout the body

   b) Break down food and absorb nutrients

   c) Produce hormones for metabolism

   d) Regulate body temperature

2. Which organ produces bile, which helps in the digestion of fats?

   a) Stomach

   b) Liver

   c) Small intestine

   d) Pancreas

3. What is the role of the small intestine in the digestive system?

   a) Absorb water and electrolytes

   b) Store bile

   c) Break down proteins into amino acids

   d) Absorb nutrients into the bloodstream

4. The digestive juices in the stomach contain:

   a) Bile

   b) Pepsin and hydrochloric acid

   c) Lipase

   d) Insulin

5. Which part of the tooth is the hardest and protects the inner layers?

   a) Dentin

   b) Enamel

   c) Pulp

   d) Cementum

6. What is the function of the esophagus?

   a) Production of gastric juices

   b) Absorption of nutrients

   c) Transport food from the mouth to the stomach

   d) Storage of bile

7. The process by which food is broken down into smaller molecules that can be absorbed by the body is called:

   a) Assimilation

   b) Absorption

   c) Digestion

   d) Peristalsis

8. Which of the following is not a part of the accessory organs of the digestive system?

   a) Liver

   b) Gallbladder

   c) Pancreas

   d) Small intestine

9. Where does the majority of nutrient absorption occur in the digestive system?

   a) Stomach

   b) Large intestine

   c) Esophagus

   d) Small intestine

10. What is the purpose of the mucus in the stomach lining?

    a) Protection from mechanical damage

    b) Absorption of nutrients

    c) Neutralization of stomach acid

    d) Production of digestive enzymes

Answers:

1. b) Break down food and absorb nutrients

2. b) Liver

3. d) Absorb nutrients into the bloodstream

4. b) Pepsin and hydrochloric acid

5. b) Enamel

6. c) Transport food from the mouth to the stomach

7. c) Digestion

8. d) Small intestine

9. d) Small intestine

10. a) Protection from mechanical damage

नेपालको राष्ट्रिय खोप तालिका २०८१: परिमार्जित खोप तालिका Latest vaccine schedule of Nepal: Nepal National Immunization Schedule (NIP)

बालबालिकालाइ बिभिन्न किसिमका सरुवारोगहरुबाट जोगाउन बच्चा जन्मेदेखि दुई वर्ष नपुगेसम्म बिभिन्न खोपहरु निम्नानुसार लगाउनु पर्दछ।

1. At birth: BCG
2. 6 weeks: Rota, PCV, Polio, DPT Hep B Hib (pentavalent)
3. 10 weeks: Rota, polio, PCV, DPT Hep B Hib
4. 14 weeks Polio, FIPV, DPT Hep B Hib
5. 9 months: FIPV, PCV, MR
6. 12 months JE
7. 15 months: MR, Typhoid
8. HPV : class 6 girl or 10 years age girl

All vaccines in above list are free of cost in government  institutions on Nepal. 

COVID vaccine qr code card verification method

खोप सुरक्षित छ।

खोप लगाउनु भनेको व्यक्तिको शारीरिर सुरक्षा बढाउने कामहो जसले खतरनाक रोगहरूबाट बचाउँदछ।

खोप नि:शुल्क पाइन्छ।

नेपालको सरकारले विभिन्न रुपका आधारमा नागरिकहरूलाई खोप नि:शुल्क रूपमा प्रदान गर्छ।

खोपले जीवन रक्षा गर्छ।

Vaccine allergies and AEFI Nepal राष्ट्रिय खोप तालिका:

Side effects of vaccine in nepali:

Khop lagaune tarika खोप लगाउने तरिका र डोज नेपालीमा Route of administration of vaccines and dose

Vaccine route of administration and dose in nepali

Typhoid vaccine included in Nepal Guideline Since When

Typhoid vaccine guideine

खोपको डोज छुटेको छ? कि ढिला भएको छ? के गर्ने भनेर जान्न हामिलाई सोध्नुहोस। च्याटबक्स इमेल email : mail@chaitanya.com.np मा सम्पर्क गर्नुहोस्।

Bachelor of Public Health (BPH) Nepal Health Professional Council (NHPC) License Exam 2081 Model Set

Here are 20 model questions for the Bachelor of Public Health (BPH) Nepal Health Professional Council (NHPC) License Exam:

Public Health & Epidemiology

1. What is the incubation period of Hepatitis A?
   a) 7–14 days
   b) 15–50 days
   c) 30–90 days
   d) 90–180 days

2. Which of the following is a key feature of descriptive epidemiology?
   a) Hypothesis testing
   b) Randomized control trials
   c) Distribution of disease in terms of person, place, and time
   d) Use of meta-analysis

3. The Basic Reproduction Number (R₀) of a disease refers to:
   a) The percentage of immune individuals in a population
   b) The average number of secondary cases generated by one case
   c) The number of deaths caused by the disease
   d) The incubation period of the disease

Biostatistics & Research Methodology

4. In biostatistics, p-value less than 0.05 indicates:
   a) The hypothesis is rejected
   b) The hypothesis is accepted
   c) No association between variables
   d) The study is invalid

5. Which sampling method ensures each individual has an equal chance of being selected?
   a) Stratified sampling
   b) Simple random sampling
   c) Snowball sampling
   d) Convenience sampling

Health Policy, Management & Health System

6. Nepal’s National Health Policy was first introduced in:
   a) 1991
   b) 2004
   c) 2015
   d) 2018

7. The Primary Health Care (PHC) approach was officially introduced globally after:
   a) The Ottawa Charter
   b) The Alma-Ata Declaration
   c) The Sustainable Development Goals
   d) The Millennium Development Goals

8. Which of the following is not an indicator of health system performance?
   a) Infant mortality rate
   b) Number of medical colleges
   c) Life expectancy
   d) Maternal mortality ratio

Environmental & Occupational Health

9. The presence of arsenic in groundwater mainly leads to:
   a) Methemoglobinemia
   b) Fluorosis
   c) Skin cancer
   d) Itai-Itai disease

10. The main cause of indoor air pollution in rural Nepal is:
    a) Vehicular emissions
    b) Industrial waste
    c) Biomass fuel burning
    d) Ozone depletion

Communicable & Non-Communicable Diseases

11. The first case of COVID-19 in Nepal was reported in:
    a) December 2019
    b) January 2020
    c) March 2020
    d) May 2020

12. Which of the following is not a risk factor for cardiovascular diseases?
    a) High blood pressure
    b) Tobacco use
    c) Physical activity
    d) Obesity

Reproductive, Maternal & Child Health

13. Which of the following is a leading cause of maternal mortality in Nepal?
    a) Road traffic accidents
    b) Postpartum hemorrhage
    c) HIV/AIDS
    d) Thyroid disorders

14. Exclusive breastfeeding is recommended for the first:
    a) 3 months
    b) 6 months
    c) 9 months
    d) 12 months

Nutrition & Food Safety

15. A deficiency of iodine during pregnancy can lead to:
    a) Night blindness
    b) Beriberi
    c) Cretinism
    d) Pellagra

16. Mid-upper arm circumference (MUAC) is used to assess:
    a) Vitamin A deficiency
    b) Malnutrition
    c) Water intake
    d) Physical activity level

Disaster & Emergency Health Management

17. The first step in disaster risk management is:
    a) Response and recovery
    b) Risk assessment and mitigation
    c) Providing immediate aid
    d) Media coverage

18. In Nepal, a public health emergency is declared when:
    a) At least 50 cases of an outbreak occur
    b) There is a sudden rise in disease cases that affects public safety
    c) The WHO issues a global alert
    d) The Ministry of Health and Population issues a statement

Mental Health & Community Interventions

19. Which of the following is a key symptom of major depressive disorder?
    a) Increased social interaction
    b) Decreased need for sleep
    c) Persistent low mood and loss of interest
    d) Excessive physical energy

20. The Mental Health Policy of Nepal (1996) emphasizes:
    a) The establishment of mental hospitals in each province
    b) Integrating mental health services into primary health care
    c) Mental health services should only be provided in urban areas
    d) Restricting the use of psychotropic medications

Continue reading BPH License Exam Model Question (NHPC ) Nepal Health Professional Council License Exam 2081

First Dose of Amiodarone in ACLS: Guidelines, Dosage, and Administration

Amiodarone is a critical antiarrhythmic medication used in Advanced Cardiovascular Life Support (ACLS) for managing life-threatening cardiac arrhythmias. Understanding the first dose of amiodarone in ACLS is essential for healthcare providers to ensure proper resuscitation and improve patient outcomes.

When to Use Amiodarone in ACLS

The American Heart Association (AHA) recommends amiodarone in ACLS for:

• Pulseless Ventricular Tachycardia (pVT)
• Ventricular Fibrillation (VF)
• Recurrent or refractory ventricular arrhythmias

It is considered when shockable rhythms persist despite defibrillation and epinephrine administration.

First Dose of Amiodarone in ACLS

According to the ACLS guidelines, the initial dose of amiodarone in cardiac arrest is:

• First dose: 300 mg IV/IO push
• Second dose (if needed): 150 mg IV/IO push

The first dose of amiodarone should be administered as soon as possible after the second unsuccessful defibrillation attempt for VF or pulseless VT.

How to Administer Amiodarone in ACLS

• Administer the first dose of amiodarone (300 mg) as a rapid IV push.
• If the arrhythmia persists, give a second dose of 150 mg after 3-5 minutes.
• Always flush with at least 20 mL of normal saline after administration.
• Continuous cardiac monitoring is required to assess response and detect potential complications.

Post-Resuscitation Amiodarone Infusion

If the patient achieves Return of Spontaneous Circulation (ROSC) but is still at risk of arrhythmias, a maintenance infusion is recommended:

• Loading dose: 150 mg over 10 minutes
• Maintenance infusion: 1 mg/min for 6 hours, then 0.5 mg/min for 18 hours

Precautions and Side Effects

• Hypotension – Can be minimized by slowing the infusion rate.
• Bradycardia – May require temporary pacing or atropine.
• QT prolongation – Risk of torsades de pointes, so continuous ECG monitoring is necessary.

Amiodarone vs. Lidocaine in ACLS

Although amiodarone is the preferred antiarrhythmic, lidocaine can be an alternative if amiodarone is unavailable. The first dose of lidocaine in ACLS is 1-1.5 mg/kg IV/IO, followed by additional doses if needed.

Conclusion

The first dose of amiodarone in ACLS is 300 mg IV push, followed by 150 mg if necessary. Proper administration of amiodarone can improve survival in patients with refractory ventricular fibrillation or pulseless ventricular tachycardia. Healthcare providers must be familiar with ACLS protocols to optimize patient outcomes in cardiac arrest situations.

By following evidence-based ACLS guidelines, clinicians can enhance the effectiveness of resuscitation efforts and increase the chances of a successful outcome.

ACLS Precourse Self-Assessment questions to test your understanding of key concepts 2025

Rhythm Recognition

1. Identify the following rhythm on an ECG strip: Wide QRS, irregular, no P waves.
   A) Atrial fibrillation
   B) Ventricular fibrillation
   C) Torsades de pointes
   D) Sinus tachycardia

2. Which rhythm requires immediate defibrillation?
   A) Asystole
   B) Pulseless electrical activity (PEA)
   C) Ventricular tachycardia with a pulse
   D) Pulseless ventricular fibrillation

3. What is the first-line drug for stable narrow-complex supraventricular tachycardia (SVT)?
   A) Epinephrine
   B) Adenosine
   C) Amiodarone
   D) Atropine

Pharmacology

4. What is the recommended first dose of epinephrine during cardiac arrest?
   A) 0.5 mg IV
   B) 1 mg IV
   C) 2 mg IV
   D) 5 mg IV

5. Which medication is preferred for persistent ventricular tachycardia with a pulse?
   A) Adenosine
   B) Amiodarone
   C) Atropine
   D) Magnesium sulfate

Acute Coronary Syndrome (ACS)

6. A patient with chest pain has ST-segment elevation in leads II, III, and aVF. What type of myocardial infarction is most likely?
   A) Anterior MI
   B) Inferior MI
   C) Lateral MI
   D) Posterior MI

7. What is the first-line treatment for a suspected STEMI within 12 hours of symptom onset?
   A) Aspirin and nitroglycerin
   B) Fibrinolysis or PCI
   C) Beta-blockers and statins
   D) Morphine and oxygen

Bradycardia & Tachycardia Management

8. A patient presents with symptomatic bradycardia and a heart rate of 35 bpm. What is the first drug to administer?
   A) Epinephrine 1 mg IV
   B) Atropine 1 mg IV
   C) Amiodarone 300 mg IV
   D) Adenosine 6 mg IV

9. Which intervention is indicated for unstable monomorphic ventricular tachycardia with a pulse?
   A) Defibrillation
   B) Synchronized cardioversion
   C) Epinephrine push
   D) Amiodarone infusion

Post-Cardiac Arrest Care

10. After achieving return of spontaneous circulation (ROSC), what is the target range for oxygen saturation (SpO₂)?
    A) 85-90%
    B) 90-94%
    C) 94-99%
    D) 100%

11. What is the recommended target temperature range for post-cardiac arrest hypothermia management?
    A) 28-30°C
    B) 31-33°C
    C) 32-36°C
    D) 36-38°C

PCL Physiotherapy License Exam Model Questions (NHPC) Set 3

1. Which of the following is NOT a component of evidence-based physiotherapy practice?

a) Clinical expertise
b) Patient values
c) Research evidence
d) Personal opinions

2. The normal range of motion (ROM) for knee flexion is approximately:

a) 90°
b) 110°
c) 135°
d) 160°

3. The Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) is used to assess:

a) Muscle strength
b) Cognitive function
c) Level of consciousness
d) Joint mobility

4. In which condition is McMurray’s test used for diagnosis?

a) ACL injury
b) Meniscal tear
c) Rotator cuff injury
d) Plantar fasciitis

5. The primary goal of physiotherapy in stroke rehabilitation is:

a) Complete muscle hypertrophy
b) Prevent contractures and improve functional mobility
c) Increase patient dependence
d) Immobilization of affected limbs

6. Which of the following gait patterns is commonly seen in patients with Parkinson’s disease?

a) Trendelenburg gait
b) Festinating gait
c) Steppage gait
d) Waddling gait

7. Which of the following is the primary function of the rotator cuff muscles?

a) Internal rotation of the elbow
b) Stabilization of the shoulder joint
c) Flexion of the wrist
d) Knee extension

8. The Babinski sign is indicative of:

a) Lower motor neuron lesion
b) Upper motor neuron lesion
c) Peripheral nerve injury
d) Normal plantar reflex

9. Which of the following electrotherapy modalities is most commonly used for pain relief?

a) Ultrasound
b) Transcutaneous Electrical Nerve Stimulation (TENS)
c) Shortwave diathermy
d) Cryotherapy

10. The primary muscle responsible for hip abduction is:

a) Gluteus maximus
b) Gluteus medius
c) Rectus femoris
d) Iliopsoas

11. Which of the following tests is used to assess anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) integrity?

a) Lachman test
b) Finkelstein test
c) Thomas test
d) Phalen’s test

12. The Cobb angle is used to measure the severity of:

a) Kyphosis
b) Scoliosis
c) Lordosis
d) Osteoporosis

13. Which of the following is an absolute contraindication for manual therapy?

a) Muscle strain
b) Acute fractures
c) Joint stiffness
d) Postural imbalance

14. Which condition is characterized by progressive degeneration of the myelin sheath?

a) Muscular dystrophy
b) Multiple sclerosis
c) Myasthenia gravis
d) Rheumatoid arthritis

15. A patient with a foot drop will likely require which assistive device?

a) Axillary crutches
b) Ankle-foot orthosis (AFO)
c) Knee brace
d) Cane

16. In which condition is cardiac rehabilitation MOST commonly indicated?

a) Osteoarthritis
b) Myocardial infarction
c) Frozen shoulder
d) Fibromyalgia

17. The Thomas test is used to assess:

a) Hamstring tightness
b) Hip flexor tightness
c) ACL integrity
d) Shoulder impingement

18. Which of the following is NOT a benefit of hydrotherapy?

a) Decreased joint stress
b) Improved circulation
c) Increased body weight
d) Relaxation of muscles

19. Which exercise is MOST effective for strengthening the quadriceps muscle?

a) Hamstring curls
b) Straight leg raises
c) Calf raises
d) Shoulder press

20. The RICE protocol for acute injury management includes all EXCEPT:

a) Rest
b) Ice
c) Compression
d) Exercise

Answer Keys

1. d) Personal opinions – Evidence-based practice is based on clinical expertise, patient values, and research evidence, not personal opinions.
2. c) 135° – The normal knee flexion ROM is approximately 135°.
3. c) Level of consciousness – The GCS assesses a patient’s consciousness level based on eye, verbal, and motor responses.
4. b) Meniscal tear – McMurray’s test is used to assess meniscal injuries in the knee.
5. b) Prevent contractures and improve functional mobility – Stroke rehabilitation focuses on restoring mobility and preventing complications.
6. b) Festinating gait – Parkinson’s patients exhibit a festinating (shuffling) gait.
7. b) Stabilization of the shoulder joint – The rotator cuff muscles provide shoulder joint stability.
8. b) Upper motor neuron lesion – A positive Babinski sign indicates an upper motor neuron lesion.
9. b) Transcutaneous Electrical Nerve Stimulation (TENS) – TENS is widely used for pain relief.
10. b) Gluteus medius – The primary muscle responsible for hip abduction is the gluteus medius.
11. a) Lachman test – The Lachman test is used to assess ACL integrity.
12. b) Scoliosis – The Cobb angle is used to measure the degree of scoliosis.
13. b) Acute fractures – Manual therapy is contraindicated in acute fractures to prevent further injury.
14. b) Multiple sclerosis – MS is a condition characterized by demyelination in the central nervous system.
15. b) Ankle-foot orthosis (AFO) – An AFO helps support foot drop by maintaining dorsiflexion.
16. b) Myocardial infarction – Cardiac rehabilitation is most commonly prescribed after a heart attack.
17. b) Hip flexor tightness – The Thomas test assesses hip flexor tightness.
18. c) Increased body weight – Hydrotherapy reduces the weight-bearing effect on joints.
19. b) Straight leg raises – This exercise is effective for quadriceps strengthening.
20. d) Exercise – The RICE protocol consists of Rest, Ice, Compression, and Elevation, not Exercise.