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6 Common Drugs Used for UTI (urinary tract infection) Prophylaxis in Children
Table of Contents
Urinary Tract Infection (UTI) in Children — Introduction
Urinary tract infection (UTI) (outlink to CDC) is one of the most common serious bacterial infections in childhood and an important cause of fever, morbidity, and potential long-term renal damage. UTIs involve infection of the urinary system, including the bladder (cystitis) and kidneys (pyelonephritis). Early recognition and appropriate management are essential to prevent complications such as renal scarring, hypertension, and chronic kidney disease.
Epidemiology
UTIs occur in approximately 5–8% of girls and 1–2% of boys by 7 years of age. During infancy, UTIs are more common in boys, especially those who are uncircumcised. After the first year of life, girls are affected more frequently due to anatomical and behavioral factors.
Causative Agents
The most common causative organism is Escherichia coli, accounting for the majority of infections. Other pathogens include Klebsiella, Proteus, Enterococcus, and Pseudomonas aeruginosa, particularly in children with structural abnormalities or catheterization. Link to Genitourinary system MCQs
Risk factors and Presentation
Risk factors include vesicoureteral reflux, urinary tract obstruction, neurogenic bladder, constipation, poor perineal hygiene, and dysfunctional voiding. Clinical presentation varies with age: neonates and infants may present with nonspecific signs such as fever, poor feeding, vomiting, or irritability, whereas older children typically present with dysuria, frequency, urgency, abdominal pain, or flank pain.
Prevention
Because recurrent infections increase the risk of renal scarring, identifying children at risk and initiating preventive strategies — including behavioral measures and, when indicated, antibiotic prophylaxis — is an important component of pediatric care.
UTI Prophylaxis in Children
| Drug | Dose (once daily unless stated) | Age suitability | When preferred | Important notes |
|---|---|---|---|---|
| Nitrofurantoin | 1–2 mg/kg at bedtime | >1 month | First-line prophylaxis | Avoid if G6PD deficiency; may cause nausea |
| Trimethoprim-Sulfamethoxazole (TMP-SMX) | 2 mg/kg (TMP component) | >2 months | Common first choice | Avoid in neonates; risk of Stevens-Johnson syndrome |
| Trimethoprim alone | 2 mg/kg | >2 months | Alternative to TMP-SMX | Useful if sulfa allergy |
| Cephalexin | 10–12 mg/kg | All ages | Infants & vesicoureteral reflux | Good safety profile |
| Amoxicillin | 10–15 mg/kg | <2 months | Neonatal prophylaxis | Resistance common after infancy |
| Cefixime | 2 mg/kg | >6 months | Resistant organisms | Used less commonly |
Indications for UTI Prophylaxis
- Vesicoureteral reflux (Grade III–V)
- Recurrent febrile UTIs (≥2 in 6 months or ≥3/year)
- Obstructive uropathy awaiting surgery
- Neurogenic bladder
- After first febrile UTI in infants until evaluation complete
Duration
- Continue until:
- VUR resolves or is surgically corrected
- Child becomes toilet trained and infection-free
- Specialist review recommends stopping
Key Clinical Points
✔ Give at bedtime for maximal bladder concentration
✔ Encourage hydration & regular voiding
✔ Treat constipation (important risk factor)
✔ Monitor for breakthrough infections and resistance
Treatment of UTI in Children
Empirical Antibiotic Therapy (Based on Clinical Type)
| Clinical Type | Oral Antibiotics (Outpatient) | IV Antibiotics (Inpatient / Severe) | Duration |
|---|---|---|---|
| Simple cystitis (Afebrile UTI) | Nitrofurantoin 5–7 mg/kg/day ÷ 2 doses Cephalexin 50–100 mg/kg/day ÷ 3–4 doses TMP-SMX 8–10 mg/kg/day (TMP component) ÷ 2 doses | Usually not required | 5–7 days |
| Febrile UTI / Acute pyelonephritis | Cefixime 8 mg/kg/day OD Amoxicillin-clavulanate 40–50 mg/kg/day ÷ 2–3 doses | Ceftriaxone 50–75 mg/kg OD Cefotaxime 150 mg/kg/day ÷ 3 doses Gentamicin 5–7 mg/kg OD | 7–14 days |
| Neonatal UTI (<2 months) | Not preferred | Ampicillin + Gentamicin OR Cefotaxime | 10–14 days |
| Complicated UTI / Toxic child | Not preferred | Ceftriaxone ± Amikacin Consider Piperacillin-Tazobactam if resistant | 10–14 days |
Organism-Specific Considerations
| Organism | Preferred Drugs |
|---|---|
| Escherichia coli | Cephalosporins, Nitrofurantoin, TMP-SMX (if sensitive) |
| Proteus | Avoid Nitrofurantoin; use cephalosporins |
| Pseudomonas aeruginosa | Ceftazidime, Piperacillin-Tazobactam |
| Enterococcus | Ampicillin, Amoxicillin |
Supportive Management
| Measure | Details |
|---|---|
| Hydration | Encourage oral fluids |
| Antipyretics | Paracetamol / Ibuprofen |
| Treat constipation | Important to prevent recurrence |
| Follow-up culture | If no improvement in 48 hours |
| Imaging | RBUS after first febrile UTI (especially <2 years) |
Important Clinical Points
✔ Send urine routine + culture before starting antibiotics
✔ Switch from IV to oral once clinically improved (24–48 hrs)
✔ Modify antibiotics according to culture sensitivity
✔ Admit if: toxic appearance, persistent vomiting, dehydration, neonate, poor follow-up
CROUP (Acute Laryngotracheobronchitis)
Table of Contents
Definition
Croup is an acute viral inflammatory disease of the upper airway involving the larynx, trachea, and bronchi, leading to subglottic edema and airway obstruction.
Epidemiology
- Age: 6 months – 3 years (can occur up to 6 years)
- Male > Female
- Peak: Autumn & early winter
- Usually preceded by URTI
Etiology
Viral (most common)
- Parainfluenza virus type 1 (most common)
- Parainfluenza 2 & 3
- RSV
- Influenza A & B
- Adenovirus
- Human metapneumovirus
Rare bacterial causes
- Mycoplasma
- Secondary bacterial infection (uncommon)
Pathophysiology
- Viral infection → inflammation & edema of subglottic region
- Subglottis is the narrowest part of pediatric airway
- Small edema → marked increase in airway resistance
- Leads to inspiratory stridor & respiratory distress
Clinical Features
Prodrome
- Low-grade fever
- Coryza
- Cough
Characteristic features
- Barking (seal-like) cough
- Hoarseness
- Inspiratory stridor
- Worse at night
- Aggravated by crying & agitation
Severe disease
- Stridor at rest
- Chest retractions
- Tachypnea
- Hypoxia
- Fatigue / altered sensorium (late sign)
Severity Assessment (Westley Croup Score – concept)
| Feature | Mild | Moderate | Severe |
|---|---|---|---|
| Stridor | None / with agitation | At rest | Loud, biphasic |
| Retractions | None | Mild–moderate | Severe |
| Air entry | Normal | Decreased | Markedly reduced |
| Cyanosis | None | None | Present |
| Mental status | Normal | Normal | Altered |
Investigations
- Diagnosis is clinical
- No routine labs required
- Neck X-ray (AP) (only if diagnosis unclear):
- Steeple sign (subglottic narrowing)
⚠️ Avoid throat examination if severe obstruction suspected.
Differential Diagnosis
| Condition | Key Differentiating Feature |
|---|---|
| Epiglottitis | High fever, drooling, muffled voice |
| Bacterial tracheitis | Toxic child, high fever |
| Foreign body | Sudden onset, no prodrome |
| Retropharyngeal abscess | Neck stiffness, drooling |
| Angioedema | Facial/lip swelling |
Management
General Measures
- Keep child calm
- Minimal handling
- Oxygen if hypoxic
- Humidified air (comfort measure only)
Pharmacological Treatment
1️⃣ Corticosteroids (All cases)
Dexamethasone (Dexona)
- Dose: 0.6 mg/kg
- Max: 10 mg
- Route: Oral / IM / IV
- Single dose usually sufficient
2️⃣ Adrenaline Nebulization (Moderate–Severe)
L-Adrenaline (1:1000)
- Dose: 0.5 mL/kg (max 5 mL)
- Dilute with NS to 5 mL
- Rapid onset (10–15 min)
- Duration: ~2 hours
⚠️ Observe 2–4 hours after neb (rebound stridor)
Indications for Admission
- Stridor at rest
- Need for repeated adrenaline
- Hypoxia
- Poor oral intake
- Age < 6 months
- Social concerns
Indications for ICU / Intubation
- Exhaustion
- Altered consciousness
- Severe hypoxia
- Poor air entry
- Failure to respond to treatment
Complications
- Respiratory failure
- Secondary bacterial infection
- Pneumonia
- Rarely death
Prognosis
- Excellent
- Self-limiting (3–7 days)
- Recurrence possible
Key Takeaway
- Single dose dexamethasone for all croup
- Adrenaline = temporary relief
- Steeple sign = croup
- Drooling → think epiglottitis
- Avoid agitation at all costs
What is vitamin D? What are the causes, symptoms, complications and treatment of vitamin D deficiency?
What are the causes, symptoms, complications and treatment of vitamin D deficiency?
Contents
Table of Contents(toc)
- What is vitamin D?….
- What are sources of vitamin D?…………
- What is the function of vitamin D in our body? Why do we need vitamin D?…………
- What is the daily requirement of vitamin D?………….
- What causes vitamin D deficiency?……………
- What are symptoms of vitamin D deficiency?…………
- What are the complications of vitamin D deficiency?………..
- How to prevent vitamin D deficiency?……..
- How to treat vitamin D deficiency?….
- How to test vitamin D in our body?…..
- What is the dose of vitamin D supplementation?…..
- Do we overdose on vitamin D?………..
- What should I do if I think I lack vitamin D?……
What is vitamin D?
Vitamin D is an essential micronutrient which can be found in various food sources. Vitamin D is fat-soluble, and few foods naturally have vitamin D. Except fatty fish liver, other foods are poor sources of vitamin D. Vitamin D is needed for bone metabolism and calcium balance in the body.
What are sources of vitamin D?
Synthesis of vitamin D in skin is the main source of vitamin D for humans. The vitamin D in the skin is formed by exposure of Ultraviolet light into the skin, converting 7-dehydrocholesterol to provitamin D3. This is then converted to cholecalciferol by temperature dependent rearrangement. The sun exposure to face and arms only produces up to 200 International units per day of vitamin D.
Fatty fish liver is another major source. Minor sources include milk, meat and animal liver, eggs, some vegetables and mushrooms.
| vitamin d and bone |
What is the function of vitamin D in our body? Why do we need vitamin D?
After production in skin, or after taking vitamin D (D2 or D3 from food), our blood is converted to 25-hydroxyvitamin D and then to 1,25-hydroxyvitamin D in the kidney. This is the active form of vitamin D. The functions of vitamin D are:
- Calcium Homeostasis
- Bone metabolism
- Phosphorus metabolism
- Muscle strength
- Prevention from cancer
- Prevention form heart disease like hypertension and heart attack
- Prevention from other endocrine diseases and diabetes
- Boosting immune system
- Helping brain development and prevention of cognitive function decline
- Prevention from mental illnesses
What is the daily requirement of vitamin D?
Recommended dietary allowance RDA of vitamin D is as follows:
- Up to 12 months of age: 400 IU per day (=10 mcg)
- Children 1-18 years, people up to 70 years: 600 IU (=15mcg) per day
- People above 70 years: 800 IU (=20mcg) per day
People often have low Vitamin D intake, and most people are deficient in vitamin D. Many people are at considerable risk for deficiency. Thus, it’s recommended for regular supplement of vitamin D to all the high-risk populations. Now a days milk fortification with vitamin D has also started to meet this requirement.
People with malabsorption disorders require high dose supplementation of vitamin D as high as 40000 IU per day.
What causes vitamin D deficiency?
Worldwide, billions of people lack vitamin D. Some factors mentioned below may cause vitamin D deficiency or resistance in our body:
- Low exposure to sunlight
- Low dietary intake
- Low fat intake
- Malabsorption disorders or syndromes
- Residence in regions where there is low sun exposure
- Impaired ability of body to use inactive vitamin D (liver or renal dysfunction)
- Resistance of body to act to the vitamin D present in our body
- Older age
- High dose of steroids drug intake
| vitamin d deficiency depiction |
What are symptoms of vitamin D deficiency?
- Most people are asymptomatic initially
- Bone pain and tenderness
- Muscle weakness
- Fractures
- Difficulty walking
What are the complications of vitamin D deficiency?
- Increases bone loss
- Osteopenia and osteoporosis
- Hypocalcemia
- Hypophosphatemia
- Secondary hyperparathyroidism
- Phosphaturia
- Osteomalacia
- Muscle weakness, cancers, decreased immunity or increased autoimmune diseases, asthma, hypertension, MI, diabetes, bad pregnancy outcomes
How to prevent vitamin D deficiency?
- Get adequate exposure to direct sunlight, especially in the morning (10 am to 2 am) time when there is adequate concentration and band of UV light in sunlight
- Eat fish and fish liver that have vitamin D (cod, salmon, swordfish, tuna)
- Eat eggs, meat and animal liver
- Eat fortified milk or juices with vitamin D
How to treat vitamin D deficiency?
Serum vitamin D (25-hydroxyvitamin D) level can be measured by blood test to confirm or screen for vitamin D deficiency. The common consensus is that 30 ng/mL (nanogram per milliliter) or 75 nmol/L is sufficient for most individuals. However, the reference range may vary depending on the population and consensus.
Serum PTH (parathyroid hormone) level is inversely related to serum vitamin D level so it can also be measured to check for vitamin D deficiency.
What is the dose of vitamin D supplementation?
Despite adequate dietary and behavioral measures to prevent vitamin D deficiency, people may have deficiency and may even have clinical manifestations.
There are two forms of vitamin D supplementations available cynically for supplementation viz. Cholecalciferol (D3) and ergocalciferol (D2). These supplementations are available in various doses like 400, 600, 800, 1000, 2000, 5000, 10000, 50000, 60000 IU capsules, powder or tablets. In some countries they are available in Injectable form as well.
Vitamin d supplementation can be done by any of following regimen depending up on patient factors like severity, patients’ absorptive ability, compliance or clinical manifestations:
- Initially 60000 IU of D2 or D3 once a week for 6-8 weeks (about 2 months) then 800 IU per day
- 1000 IU of D2 or D3 per day
- 600-800 IU of D2 or D3 per day
- 10000 to 60000 IU per day for malabsorption disorders depending upon severity of malabsorption and deficiency
In some cases, vitamin D metabolites like calcidiol or calcitriol or dihydrotachysterol may be used for treatment of vitamin D deficiency. Another modality of vitamin D deficiency treatment is artificial exposure to UVB (ultraviolet B) light.
Calcium supplementation may also be needed with supplementation of vitamin D.
Is vitamin D3 the same as vitamin D 25 hydroxyvitamin D3?
25-hydroxyvitamin D3 is one of the inactive forms of the vitamin D which is found in blood and its value is measured to check for vitamin D deficiency.
Is vitamin D same as D3 or D2?
Do we overdose on vitamin D?
Toxic dose of vitamin D supplementation is not clear though tolerable upper limit is set. For children above 9 years and adults, the largest upper limit is 4000 IU (100mcg) per day, while that for children it lower. Following symptoms might be seen if vitamin D toxicity or overdose occurs:
- Decreased appetite
- Weight loss
- Irregular heartbeat
What should I do if I think I lack vitamin D?
If you think you have vitamin D deficiency you need to visit your doctor and he will ask you some questions about symptoms and signs of vitamin D deficiency. He may order some tests to confirm if you have vitamin D deficiency. After the reports he will treat it depending upon multiple factors and personalized treatment plan for you. He will also ask you for follow-up to confirm the correction of the deficiency, relief of symptoms, and help you with future prevention of the same condition. A repeat check of vitamin D level can usually be done after 3-4 months of supplementation intake.
You can also book an appointment with us if you think you have vitamin D deficiency or any health problem. Use the contact us button or the chat box below. Thank you for reading.
3 Set Loksewa Past Question Collection of Medical Officer (MBBS)
GASTRIC OUTLET OBSTRUCTION (GOO) Note Complete
GASTRIC OUTLET OBSTRUCTION (GOO)
Definition
Partial or complete obstruction of the distal stomach, pylorus, or proximal duodenum, preventing normal gastric emptying into the duodenum.
Etiology
A. Congenital causes
-
Infantile hypertrophic pyloric stenosis (most common in infants)
-
Duodenal atresia
-
Annular pancreas
-
Preduodenal portal vein
-
Gastric/duodenal webs or membranes
B. Acquired causes
1. Benign causes
-
Peptic ulcer disease (most common in adults)
-
Chronic pancreatitis (fibrosis, pseudocyst compression)
-
Postoperative adhesions or anastomotic strictures
-
Ingestion of corrosives
-
Gallstone impaction (Bouveret syndrome)
-
Crohn’s disease
-
Tuberculosis (gastroduodenal)
2. Malignant causes
-
Carcinoma of the stomach (antral carcinoma)
-
Carcinoma of the pancreas (head region)
-
Duodenal carcinoma
-
Lymphoma involving pylorus
Pathophysiology
-
Obstruction → gastric stasis → accumulation of food, fluid, and secretions → gastric dilatation
-
Persistent vomiting → loss of H⁺, Cl⁻, K⁺ → hypochloremic, hypokalemic metabolic alkalosis
-
Dehydration → hypovolemia → renal compensation (paradoxical aciduria)
Clinical Features
Symptoms
-
Vomiting – projectile, non-bilious, of undigested food; may be late after meals
-
Fullness / bloating / early satiety
-
Epigastric pain (relieved by vomiting)
-
Weight loss and dehydration
-
Constipation and reduced urine output
Signs
-
Visible gastric peristalsis (from left to right across epigastrium)
-
Succussion splash (sloshing sound >6 hrs after meal)
-
Epigastric distension
-
Signs of dehydration: sunken eyes, dry tongue, hypotension
-
Palpable lump (in carcinoma or hypertrophic pyloric stenosis)
Investigations
Laboratory
-
Electrolyte imbalance: ↓Na⁺, ↓K⁺, ↓Cl⁻, ↑HCO₃⁻ (metabolic alkalosis)
-
Hemoconcentration (↑Hct)
-
Renal function tests – elevated urea/creatinine due to dehydration
Imaging
-
Plain X-ray abdomen:
-
Greatly distended stomach with fluid level, no gas beyond pylorus
-
Barium meal:
-
Delayed gastric emptying, “string sign” (narrow pylorus), or “beak-like narrowing”
-
Endoscopy:
-
Visualize site of obstruction; exclude malignancy; can take biopsy
-
CT scan:
-
Defines cause and extrinsic compression (pancreatic malignancy, pseudocyst)
-
Management
1. Initial (Stabilization)
-
Nil per oral (NPO)
-
Nasogastric decompression
-
IV fluids – correct dehydration and electrolyte imbalance
-
Correct metabolic alkalosis
-
Proton pump inhibitors / H₂ blockers
-
Nutritional support
2. Definitive treatment
a. Benign causes:
-
Peptic ulcer-related:
-
Endoscopic balloon dilatation (first-line if fibrosis mild)
-
Surgery if refractory:
-
Truncal vagotomy + antrectomy (Billroth I/II)
-
Gastrojejunostomy
-
-
-
Hypertrophic pyloric stenosis:
-
Ramstedt’s pyloromyotomy
-
-
Chronic pancreatitis / pseudocyst:
-
Treat underlying cause or cyst drainage
-
b. Malignant causes:
-
Resectable:
-
Subtotal/total gastrectomy or pancreaticoduodenectomy (depending on origin)
-
-
Unresectable:
-
Palliative gastrojejunostomy or endoscopic stenting
-
Complications
-
Severe dehydration and shock
-
Metabolic alkalosis with paradoxical aciduria
-
Aspiration pneumonia
-
Nutritional deficiencies
-
Gastric perforation (rare, late stage)
Summary Table
| Feature | Benign | Malignant |
|---|---|---|
| Onset | Gradual | Rapid |
| Vomiting | Large, non-bilious, food particles | Small, may contain altered blood |
| Pain | Relieved by vomiting | Persistent |
| Visible peristalsis | Prominent | Often absent |
| Weight loss | Moderate | Marked |
| Endoscopy finding | Scarring, ulcer | Mass, irregular ulcer |
Diploma in OTTM license examination model question
DIPLOMA IN OTTM – 50 MCQs
Anatomy & Physiology
-
The largest organ in the human body is:
A) Liver
B) Skin
C) Brain
D) Lungs -
The functional unit of the kidney is:
A) Nephron
B) Alveolus
C) Glomerulus
D) Bowman’s capsule -
Which artery supplies the heart muscle?
A) Pulmonary artery
B) Coronary artery
C) Carotid artery
D) Subclavian artery -
The normal range of adult respiratory rate is:
A) 8–10/min
B) 12–20/min
C) 22–28/min
D) 30–40/min -
Which cranial nerve controls the diaphragm?
A) Vagus nerve
B) Phrenic nerve
C) Hypoglossal nerve
D) Trigeminal nerve -
The total number of bones in adult human body is:
A) 204
B) 206
C) 208
D) 210 -
The largest gland in the human body is:
A) Pancreas
B) Liver
C) Thyroid
D) Adrenal -
Gas exchange occurs in:
A) Trachea
B) Bronchi
C) Alveoli
D) Pleura -
The hormone insulin is secreted by:
A) Adrenal cortex
B) Pancreas (Islets of Langerhans)
C) Pituitary
D) Thyroid -
Which part of the brain controls balance and coordination?
A) Cerebrum
B) Cerebellum
C) Medulla
D) Pons
Microbiology & Infection Control
-
Autoclaving is done at:
A) 100°C for 15 min
B) 121°C for 15 min at 15 psi
C) 134°C for 5 min at 30 psi
D) 160°C for 1 hour -
Bacteria are best stained by:
A) Gram stain
B) Ziehl-Neelsen stain
C) Wright’s stain
D) Leishman stain -
The causative organism of gas gangrene is:
A) Staphylococcus aureus
B) Clostridium perfringens
C) Streptococcus pyogenes
D) Pseudomonas aeruginosa -
The universal precaution includes all EXCEPT:
A) Wearing gloves
B) Recapping needles
C) Mask use
D) Handwashing -
The most effective disinfectant for HIV virus is:
A) Phenol
B) Alcohol
C) Sodium hypochlorite
D) Lysol -
The ideal temperature for storing blood is:
A) 0°C
B) 1–6°C
C) 10°C
D) Room temperature -
Asepsis means:
A) Presence of microorganisms
B) Absence of pathogenic microorganisms
C) Infection
D) Sterility failure -
The process of killing all microorganisms including spores is:
A) Disinfection
B) Sterilization
C) Pasteurization
D) Antisepsis -
Which of the following is a spore-forming bacteria?
A) E. coli
B) Clostridium
C) Klebsiella
D) Neisseria -
The standard concentration of formalin used for fumigation is:
A) 20%
B) 30%
C) 40%
D) 10%
OT Techniques & Sterilization
-
The sterile area in OT includes:
A) Scrub area
B) Operation table
C) Corridor
D) Changing room -
Ethylene oxide sterilization is used for:
A) Linen
B) Rubber and plastic items
C) Glassware
D) Instruments -
Instruments are arranged on:
A) Mayo table
B) Instrument trolley
C) Both A and B
D) Floor table -
The position used for perineal surgeries is:
A) Supine
B) Lithotomy
C) Trendelenburg
D) Prone -
The function of suction machine in OT is:
A) To provide oxygen
B) To remove blood and secretions
C) To monitor BP
D) To sterilize instruments -
The blue zone in OT indicates:
A) Clean area
B) Sterile zone
C) Dirty area
D) Store -
Drapes used in surgery should be:
A) Waterproof
B) Cotton
C) Plastic
D) Wool -
The ideal air pressure in OT is:
A) Positive pressure
B) Negative pressure
C) Neutral
D) Variable -
The most important step before scrubbing is:
A) Wearing gown
B) Wearing mask and cap
C) Touching sterile field
D) None -
Scrubbing time for hands is:
A) 30 seconds
B) 1 minute
C) 3–5 minutes
D) 10 minutes
Anaesthesia & Surgery Basics
-
Local anesthesia acts by:
A) Blocking motor nerves
B) Blocking sensory nerves
C) Depressing CNS
D) Inducing sleep -
Spinal anesthesia is given at the level of:
A) L1–L2
B) L3–L4
C) T10–T11
D) L5–S1 -
The color of oxygen cylinder is:
A) Black with white shoulder
B) Blue
C) Black with green shoulder
D) Green -
The anesthetic agent causing malignant hyperthermia is:
A) Halothane
B) Ether
C) Succinylcholine
D) Nitrous oxide -
The antidote for morphine overdose is:
A) Naloxone
B) Atropine
C) Neostigmine
D) Diazepam -
The commonest complication of spinal anesthesia is:
A) Vomiting
B) Headache
C) Fever
D) Infection -
Pulse oximeter measures:
A) Blood pressure
B) Heart rate
C) Oxygen saturation
D) CO₂ level -
The color code for nitrous oxide cylinder is:
A) Black with white shoulder
B) Blue
C) White
D) Green -
Minimum alveolar concentration (MAC) is related to:
A) Potency of inhaled anesthetic
B) Toxicity
C) Cost
D) Blood solubility -
The safest muscle relaxant in renal failure is:
A) Vecuronium
B) Pancuronium
C) Atracurium
D) Rocuronium
Surgical Instruments & Procedures
-
Mosquito forceps are used for:
A) Holding skin
B) Clamping small blood vessels
C) Cutting sutures
D) Grasping tissue -
The instrument used to hold bowel is:
A) Allis forceps
B) Babcock forceps
C) Kocher forceps
D) Artery forceps -
The suture material absorbed by the body is:
A) Silk
B) Catgut
C) Nylon
D) Prolene -
The size of needle used for IM injection in adult is:
A) 18G
B) 20G
C) 21G
D) 23G -
The normal adult blood volume is approximately:
A) 2 L
B) 3 L
C) 5 L
D) 7 L -
The instrument used to retract abdominal wall is:
A) Langenbeck retractor
B) Balfour retractor
C) Doyen retractor
D) Volkmann retractor -
“Swab count” is done to prevent:
A) Hypotension
B) Retained foreign body
C) Hypoxia
D) Bleeding -
Surgical asepsis is maintained by:
A) Sterile gloves
B) Clean apron
C) Hand wash only
D) Changing shoes -
The first step in wound management is:
A) Suturing
B) Cleaning and debridement
C) Dressing
D) Bandaging -
Postoperative infection usually occurs within:
A) 6 hours
B) 24 hours
C) 48–72 hours
D) 1 week
ANSWER KEY (1–50)
1–B
2–A
3–B
4–B
5–B
6–B
7–B
8–C
9–B
10–B
11–B
12–A
13–B
14–B
15–C
16–B
17–B
18–B
19–B
20–C
21–B
22–B
23–C
24–B
25–B
26–B
27–A
28–A
29–B
30–C
31–B
32–B
33–A
34–C
35–A
36–B
37–C
38–B
39–A
40–C
41–B
42–B
43–B
44–C
45–C
46–B
47–B
48–A
49–B
50–C
Why do some children have seizures while they have Fever and Is it dangerous?
Febrile Seizures
Based on Nelson Textbook of Pediatrics, 21st Edition and recent updates
Table of Contents
Introduction
Febrile seizures are the most common seizure disorder in childhood, occurring in association with fever but without evidence of central nervous system infection or acute electrolyte imbalance. They represent a benign, age-limited condition affecting genetically predisposed children.
Epidemiology
Age group: 6 months to 5 years (peak: 12–18 months)
Incidence: ~2–5% of children in most populations
Recurrence rate: ~30–35% after first episode; higher in early onset (<1 year)
Family history: Positive in up to 25–40% cases, suggesting genetic susceptibility
Definition (Nelson)
A febrile seizure is defined as a seizure accompanied by fever (>38°C or 100.4°F), without evidence of CNS infection, metabolic abnormality, or a history of afebrile seizures.
Classification
1. Simple Febrile Seizure (SFS)
Generalized tonic-clonic in onset
Duration <15 minutes
Occurs once in 24 hours
No postictal neurological deficit
2. Complex (Atypical) Febrile Seizure (CFS)
Focal onset or focal features during/post seizure
Duration >15 minutes
Recurrent within 24 hours
May have postictal weakness (Todd’s paresis)
3. Febrile Status Epilepticus (FSE)
Febrile seizure lasting >30 minutes (or series lasting ≥30 min without full recovery)
Requires urgent management
Etiopathogenesis
Genetic predisposition:
Polygenic inheritance; linkage to FEB1–FEB11 loci (e.g., FEB4 on 5q14–q15)
GABRG2, SCN1A gene mutations implicated (especially when overlapping with GEFS+)
Fever and cytokine response:
Elevated IL-1β, IL-6, and TNF-α lower seizure threshold
Rapid temperature rise rather than peak temperature triggers seizure
Immature brain excitability:
Age-dependent increased neuronal excitability due to GABA-A receptor subunit composition and immature synaptic inhibition
Environmental factors:
Viral infections (HHV-6, HHV-7, influenza, adenovirus, parainfluenza)
Post-immunization (rare, within 24–72 hours, e.g., MMR)
Clinical Features
Typically occur within 24 hours of fever onset
Usually generalized tonic-clonic lasting <5 minutes
Postictal drowsiness but quick recovery
No signs of meningitis (neck stiffness, photophobia, etc.)
No pre-existing neurological abnormality
Evaluation
Goal: Exclude CNS infection, structural lesion, or metabolic cause.
History and examination:
Onset, duration, type of seizure
Timing relative to fever onset
Past neurological status, family history
Investigations:
Lumbar puncture:
Indicated if <12 months with incomplete immunization or signs of meningitis
Optional in 12–18 months if unclear
Not routinely needed in typical SFS
EEG:
Not indicated after first simple febrile seizure
Consider if complex, focal, or abnormal development
Neuroimaging:
Not indicated for simple FS
Consider MRI if focal deficits, prolonged seizures, or abnormal neurological findings
Serum electrolytes, calcium, glucose:
Only if atypical features or prolonged postictal state
Differential Diagnosis
| Condition | Distinguishing Feature |
|---|---|
| Meningitis/encephalitis | Signs of CNS infection, altered consciousness |
| Rigors | Consciousness maintained, no postictal phase |
| Epilepsy | Occurs without fever, may have preceding aura |
| Hypocalcemia, hypoglycemia | Biochemical abnormalities |
| CNS structural lesion | Focal deficits, developmental delay |
Management
Acute Episode
Ensure airway, breathing, circulation
Abort seizure if >5 minutes:
IV/rectal diazepam: 0.3–0.5 mg/kg
IV lorazepam: 0.1 mg/kg (max 4 mg)
IV midazolam (buccal/nasal): 0.2 mg/kg
Control fever:
Paracetamol 10–15 mg/kg/dose
Tepid sponging (avoid cold water)
Long-term Management
Antipyretics: No evidence they prevent recurrence
Intermittent prophylaxis:
Oral diazepam 0.3 mg/kg every 8 hr during febrile illness may reduce recurrence but causes sedation/ataxia
Used only in high-risk cases (e.g., frequent recurrent FS, high parental anxiety)
Continuous prophylaxis:
Phenobarbital or valproate previously used but not recommended due to adverse effects and limited benefit
Parental counseling:
Excellent prognosis
Not associated with brain damage, mental retardation, or epilepsy in most cases
2–7% risk of later epilepsy (higher if complex, family history, or abnormal neurodevelopment)
Educate about seizure first-aid: side positioning, not inserting objects in mouth, emergency use of rectal diazepam if >5 min
Prognosis
Recurrence risk factors:
Age <12 months at first episode
Family history of febrile seizure
Low-grade fever at first seizure onset
Short interval between fever onset and seizure
Epilepsy risk:
SFS: ~1–2%
CFS: up to 4–6%
FS with neurodevelopmental delay: up to 10%
Recent Updates (per Nelson & AAP guidelines)
Continuous anticonvulsant prophylaxis not recommended for either simple or complex FS
Intermittent diazepam during febrile illness may be used selectively
Vaccination-associated febrile seizures do not contraindicate further vaccination
Genetic studies indicate overlap between FS and GEFS+ (Generalized Epilepsy with Febrile Seizures Plus), suggesting a spectrum
Key Takeaways
Febrile seizures are benign, self-limited events related to fever in young children.
The mainstay of management is parental reassurance and acute seizure control, not long-term anticonvulsant therapy.
Investigations should focus on excluding CNS infection rather than diagnosing epilepsy.
References:
Kliegman RM, et al. Nelson Textbook of Pediatrics, 21st Edition, 2020.
American Academy of Pediatrics. Guidelines for the Neurodiagnostic Evaluation of the Child with a Simple Febrile Seizure. Pediatrics, 2011.
Shinnar S, et al. N Engl J Med, 2012;366:195–203.
