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Radiography (X-Ray Technology) MCQs for NHPC Nepal – Diploma in X-Ray Technology License Exam

Here are 50 multiple-choice questions (MCQs) for the Diploma in X-Ray Technology (Radiography) License Examination focusing on various aspects of radiography, including equipment, radiation safety, imaging techniques, and patient care. The answer key is provided at the end.

~~Table of Contents(toc)~~

1. The primary function of an X-ray machine is to:

a) Create an image of the body’s internal structures
b) Provide electrical impulses for the body
c) Assist in surgery
d) Clean surgical instruments

2. Which of the following best describes an X-ray?

a) Radioactive rays
b) High-frequency electromagnetic radiation
c) Low-frequency radiation
d) Sound waves

3. The X-ray tube contains two primary components: the anode and the:

a) Cathode
b) Generator
c) Detector
d) Collimator

4. Which of the following is a common application of X-rays in medical imaging?

a) Detecting bone fractures
b) Monitoring blood flow
c) Measuring body temperature
d) Treating infections

5. The main purpose of a radiographic image is to:

a) Diagnose disease and injury
b) Treat infections
c) Administer anesthesia
d) Monitor heart rate

6. The ability of X-rays to penetrate the body depends on the:

a) Type of tissue
b) Age of the patient
c) Color of the tissue
d) Time of day

7. Which of the following materials is most commonly used as the anode in an X-ray tube?

a) Tungsten
b) Lead
c) Silver
d) Copper

8. The process by which X-rays are absorbed or blocked by tissues of different densities is called:

a) Reflection
b) Refraction
c) Attenuation
d) Diffusion

9. What is the primary purpose of the X-ray collimator?

a) To control the size and shape of the X-ray beam
b) To detect the X-ray radiation
c) To focus the X-ray on a specific area
d) To provide protection from radiation

10. The unit of measurement for radiation exposure is the:

a) Gray (Gy)
b) Hertz (Hz)
c) Ampere (A)
d) Meter (m)

11. The process by which a radiograph is converted into a visible image is called:

a) Scanning
b) Exposure
c) Development
d) Calibration

12. The correct term for a radiograph taken of the chest is:

a) Chest X-ray
b) Mammogram
c) Bone scan
d) CT scan

13. The primary purpose of a lead apron during an X-ray examination is to:

a) Prevent radiation exposure to sensitive areas
b) Provide warmth to the patient
c) Help in positioning the patient
d) Ensure proper imaging

14. The X-ray film is sensitive to:

a) Ultraviolet light
b) X-ray radiation
c) Infrared light
d) Sound waves

15. What does the radiographic term “contrast” refer to?

a) The intensity of the radiation used
b) The difference in the density of the tissues
c) The duration of the X-ray exposure
d) The color of the image

16. Which of the following is a type of X-ray imaging that provides cross-sectional images of the body?

a) Fluoroscopy
b) Mammography
c) Computed Tomography (CT)
d) Bone Densitometry

17. The X-ray beam intensity is controlled by the:

a) Exposure time
b) Kilovolt peak (kVp)
c) Milliampere (mA)
d) All of the above

18. Which of the following factors influences the quality of the X-ray image?

a) Exposure time
b) Patient positioning
c) Type of tissue
d) All of the above

19. In radiographic imaging, the term “resolution” refers to:

a) The brightness of the image
b) The sharpness of the image details
c) The contrast in the image
d) The color of the image

20. Which of the following is a potential risk of excessive X-ray exposure?

a) Radiation burns
b) Increased risk of cancer
c) Bone fractures
d) Blood pressure increase

21. Which of the following is a method to protect patients from unnecessary radiation during X-ray examinations?

a) Use of lead shields
b) Minimizing exposure time
c) Using the lowest possible X-ray dose
d) All of the above

22. What is the most common imaging technique used for imaging bones and joints?

a) Magnetic Resonance Imaging (MRI)
b) X-ray
c) Ultrasound
d) CT scan

23. The radiographic position where the patient lies on their back with their head and chest tilted upward is called:

a) Supine
b) Prone
c) Lateral
d) Fowler’s

24. The image receptor used in digital radiography is known as:

a) X-ray film
b) Flat-panel detector
c) Phosphor plate
d) All of the above

25. In fluoroscopy, the image is displayed on a:

a) Static film
b) Moving screen
c) Digital monitor
d) TV screen

26. What is the primary role of a radiographer during an X-ray procedure?

a) Administer anesthesia
b) Operate the X-ray equipment
c) Monitor the patient’s vital signs
d) Interpret the X-ray results

27. Which of the following structures is most likely to show up as a dark area on an X-ray image?

a) Bone
b) Air-filled spaces (lungs)
c) Metal implants
d) Soft tissues

28. The amount of radiation absorbed by the body is measured in:

a) Millisieverts (mSv)
b) Hertz (Hz)
c) Kilowatts (kW)
d) Amperes (A)

29. Which of the following is an advantage of digital radiography over traditional X-ray film?

a) Faster image processing
b) Higher resolution
c) Increased radiation dose
d) Limited storage capability

30. What does the term “radiographic exposure” refer to?

a) The amount of radiation passing through the body
b) The amount of light used in an image
c) The amount of time the patient spends in the scanner
d) The quality of the final image

31. Which of the following factors is controlled by the radiographer to adjust the contrast in an X-ray image?

a) Exposure time
b) Kilovolt peak (kVp)
c) Milliamperage (mA)
d) All of the above

32. The process by which X-rays are converted into visible light is called:

a) Fluorescence
b) Transmission
c) Attenuation
d) Scintillation

33. The maximum safe dose of radiation exposure is determined by the:

a) Patient’s age
b) Type of X-ray procedure
c) National and international radiation protection standards
d) Radiographer’s experience

34. The term “grids” in radiography refers to devices used to:

a) Focus the X-ray beam
b) Improve image contrast by reducing scatter radiation
c) Measure radiation exposure
d) Position the patient correctly

35. Which of the following is true about mammography?

a) It is used primarily for imaging the abdomen
b) It uses lower doses of radiation compared to general X-rays
c) It requires the use of a contrast agent
d) It is not useful in detecting breast cancer

36. What is the primary reason for using a contrast medium in certain X-ray exams?

a) To enhance the clarity of the image
b) To reduce the radiation dose
c) To make the internal organs more visible
d) To prevent radiation burns

37. The digital radiography system that uses a CCD (Charge-Coupled Device) or CMOS (Complementary Metal-Oxide-Semiconductor) detector is known as:

a) Computed Radiography (CR)
b) Direct Radiography (DR)
c) Film-screen radiography
d) Analog radiography

38. The process of converting digital images into hard copies is called:

a) Transmission
b) Hard copy printing
c) Image processing
d) Image inversion

39. The function of a dosimeter in radiology is to:

a) Measure the radiation dose received by the patient
b) Monitor the radiation exposure of the radiographer
c) Improve image quality
d) Protect the X-ray machine

40. The chest X-ray view where the patient stands upright with their back to the film and takes a deep breath is called the:

a) Anteroposterior (AP) view
b) Lateral view
c) Posteroanterior (PA) view
d) Oblique view

41. The amount of radiation the body absorbs during a radiographic examination is referred to as the:

a) Radiographic contrast
b) Radiation dose
c) Scattered radiation
d) Image resolution

42. The first step in performing a radiographic procedure is:

a) Positioning the patient
b) Selecting the appropriate exposure settings
c) Ensuring the X-ray machine is calibrated
d) Instructing the patient on how to hold their breath

43. The area of the body most likely to show up as a light area on an X-ray image is:

a) Air-filled spaces (lungs)
b) Bone
c) Soft tissues
d) Metal implants

44. What does the term “grid ratio” refer to in radiography?

a) The contrast between tissues
b) The distance between the X-ray tube and the film
c) The height of the lead strips in a grid
d) The time it takes to process the image

45. The use of a contrast medium is typically necessary in which of the following procedures?

a) Bone X-rays
b) Mammography
c) Abdominal X-rays
d) CT scans

46. What is the primary purpose of an X-ray film holder?

a) To ensure proper patient positioning
b) To hold the film during exposure
c) To protect the patient from radiation
d) To enhance the image quality

47. The radiographic procedure most commonly used to diagnose broken bones is:

a) CT scan
b) X-ray
c) MRI
d) Ultrasound

48. A radiographic procedure used to examine the gastrointestinal tract is called:

a) Fluoroscopy
b) Angiography
c) Barium swallow
d) MRI

49. What does the acronym “CT” stand for in medical imaging?

a) Chemical Therapy
b) Computed Tomography
c) Cytological Testing
d) Contrast Therapy

50. The purpose of an X-ray contrast medium is to:

a) Enhance the clarity of the image
b) Protect the patient from radiation
c) Prevent image artifacts
d) Reduce the amount of radiation used

Answer Key

These MCQs cover essential concepts in radiography, suitable for the Diploma in X-ray Technology license exam.

Operation Theatre Technology MCQs for NHPC Nepal – Diploma in Operation Theatre Technology License Exam

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Here are 50 multiple-choice questions (MCQs) for the Diploma in Operation Theatre Technology (OT) License Examination (NHPC Nepal), focusing on various aspects of operation theatre techniques, equipment, anesthesia, and patient care, with an answer key at the end.

1. The primary role of an Operation Theatre Technologist is to:

a) Assist the surgeon during surgery
b) Administer anesthesia to the patient
c) Sterilize surgical instruments
d) Monitor the patient’s vital signs during surgery

2. The most commonly used sterilization method for surgical instruments is:

a) Autoclaving
b) Dry heat sterilization
c) Gas sterilization
d) Boiling

3. Which of the following is a key responsibility of an Operation Theatre Technologist before surgery?

a) Preparing the operating room and sterile field
b) Performing the surgery
c) Administering medications
d) Providing postoperative care

4. The surgical team typically includes all the following members EXCEPT:

a) Surgeon
b) Anaesthetist
c) Scrub nurse
d) Laboratory technician

5. The term “aseptic technique” refers to:

a) Removing harmful microorganisms from the patient
b) Ensuring a sterile environment to prevent infection
c) Using antibiotics to treat infections
d) Cleaning the operating room

6. The function of a surgical drape during surgery is to:

a) Sterilize the instruments
b) Ensure the operating field remains sterile
c) Monitor the patient’s blood pressure
d) Administer anesthesia

7. The most commonly used anesthesia during surgery is:

a) Local anesthesia
b) Regional anesthesia
c) General anesthesia
d) Sedation

8. Which of the following instruments is used to hold tissues apart during surgery?

a) Scissors
b) Forceps
c) Retractors
d) Needle holder

9. The main purpose of monitoring the patient’s vital signs during surgery is to:

a) Ensure the patient is comfortable
b) Assess the risk of surgical complications
c) Prevent infection
d) Provide anesthesia

10. Which of the following is a type of surgical incision used in abdominal surgery?

a) Midline incision
b) Lateral incision
c) Vertical incision
d) Transverse incision

11. The most common method for sterilizing surgical instruments is:

a) Chemical sterilization
b) Autoclaving (steam under pressure)
c) Gas sterilization
d) Boiling water

12. The main purpose of surgical gloves is to:

a) Protect the surgeon from infection
b) Ensure a sterile environment
c) Provide comfort during surgery
d) Protect the patient from contamination

13. Which of the following is a key responsibility of an Operation Theatre Technologist during surgery?

a) Assist with anesthesia administration
b) Ensure the surgical instruments remain sterile
c) Perform surgery under supervision
d) Prepare the patient for discharge

14. The anesthesia machine in the operating room is used to:

a) Monitor the patient’s vital signs
b) Administer anesthetic agents to the patient
c) Sterilize surgical tools
d) Hold the patient in position during surgery

15. The surgical team member responsible for preparing and maintaining the sterile field is the:

a) Anaesthetist
b) Surgeon
c) Scrub nurse/technologist
d) Circulating nurse

16. What is the purpose of the “time-out” procedure before surgery?

a) To check the patient’s identity and surgical site
b) To perform the pre-surgical checklist
c) To ensure anesthesia is administered properly
d) To sterilize the instruments

17. Which of the following instruments is used to make precise surgical cuts?

a) Scalpel
b) Scissors
c) Needle holder
d) Hemostats

18. The function of a surgical suction device is to:

a) Administer oxygen to the patient
b) Remove excess fluids and blood from the surgical site
c) Disinfect the surgical area
d) Provide anesthesia

19. In which of the following types of surgeries is a laparoscope commonly used?

a) Heart surgery
b) Abdominal surgery
c) Neurosurgery
d) Orthopedic surgery

20. The best position for a patient undergoing abdominal surgery is:

a) Supine
b) Prone
c) Lithotomy
d) Lateral

21. The primary purpose of the operating table is to:

a) Hold the surgical instruments
b) Provide a sterile field
c) Provide comfort for the surgical team
d) Support the patient during surgery

22. The primary function of the sterilizer in the operating theatre is to:

a) Keep the surgical team comfortable
b) Disinfect the operating room
c) Sterilize surgical instruments and drapes
d) Control the temperature in the operating room

23. Which of the following is the best method to prevent the spread of infection during surgery?

a) Wearing non-sterile gloves
b) Ensuring all team members are vaccinated
c) Following proper aseptic techniques
d) Using antibiotics postoperatively

24. The most common complication during surgery is:

a) Infection
b) Hypovolemic shock
c) Blood clots
d) Anaphylaxis

25. The primary purpose of a sterile field in the operating room is to:

a) Provide comfort to the patient
b) Ensure only sterile items are used during surgery
c) Prevent contamination of the surgical team
d) Monitor the patient’s heart rate

26. Which of the following is used to close a wound during surgery?

a) Scalpel
b) Sutures
c) Forceps
d) Retractors

27. A key responsibility of the circulating nurse in the operating room is to:

a) Sterilize surgical instruments
b) Administer anesthesia
c) Monitor the patient’s vital signs
d) Ensure proper documentation and support

28. The surgical instrument used to grasp or hold tissue is called a:

a) Scalpel
b) Forceps
c) Scissors
d) Retractor

29. During surgery, the primary concern regarding the patient’s airway is to:

a) Ensure the patient can breathe independently
b) Monitor oxygen levels
c) Prevent airway obstruction
d) Administer oxygen to the patient

30. The most common position for a patient undergoing orthopedic surgery is:

a) Supine
b) Prone
c) Lateral
d) Trendelenburg

31. What is the purpose of using a cautery in surgery?

a) To close wounds
b) To stop bleeding by coagulating tissue
c) To disinfect the surgical site
d) To administer anesthesia

32. The best method of preventing cross-contamination in the operation theatre is:

a) Properly sterilizing instruments
b) Regularly cleaning the operating room
c) Using disposable items for surgery
d) All of the above

33. Which of the following is a method used to sterilize heat-sensitive instruments?

a) Autoclaving
b) Gas sterilization
c) Boiling
d) Radiation

34. The most commonly used anesthetic agent in general anesthesia is:

a) Propofol
b) Nitrous oxide
c) Sevoflurane
d) Ketamine

35. The responsibility of the scrub technologist during surgery includes:

a) Administering anesthesia
b) Handling surgical instruments in a sterile manner
c) Monitoring the patient’s vital signs
d) Documenting the surgery

36. The function of the operating room light is to:

a) Provide ambient lighting
b) Illuminate the surgical site for the surgeon
c) Prevent infection
d) Assist with anesthesia administration

37. The primary concern during the transfer of the patient to the operating table is:

a) To ensure proper anesthesia administration
b) To prevent injury during positioning
c) To monitor vital signs
d) To disinfect the patient’s skin

38. The most important safety consideration in the operating room is:

a) Ensuring the patient is comfortable
b) Sterilizing the instruments
c) Preventing fire hazards
d) Minimizing the time spent in surgery

39. The circulating nurse is responsible for which of the following?

a) Ensuring the surgical instruments remain sterile
b) Monitoring the patient’s vital signs during surgery
c) Handing instruments to the surgeon
d) All of the above

40. Which of the following is a major consideration in the positioning of a patient for surgery?

a) Ensuring comfort and access to the surgical site
b) Maintaining the airway
c) Preventing nerve injury
d) All of the above

41. The surgical instrument used to stop bleeding by constricting blood vessels is called a:

a) Hemostat
b) Scalpel
c) Retractor
d) Forceps

42. The time before the surgery where the surgical team reviews the patient’s identity and surgical site is called:

a) Time-out procedure
b) Preoperative briefing
c) Postoperative check
d) Infection control check

43. What is the function of a surgical retractor?

a) To cut tissue
b) To hold back tissues or organs
c) To administer anesthesia
d) To clean the surgical site

44. The most common complication after surgery is:

a) Infection
b) Anesthesia complications
c) Bleeding
d) Pain

45. The function of a surgical drape is to:

a) Prevent contamination of the sterile field
b) Provide warmth to the patient
c) Monitor the patient’s blood pressure
d) Hold surgical instruments

46. In which of the following surgeries is the use of robotic assistance most common?

a) Cardiac surgery
b) Laparoscopic surgery
c) Neurosurgery
d) Orthopedic surgery

47. Which of the following instruments is used to cut soft tissue during surgery?

a) Scalpel
b) Bone saw
c) Bone cutter
d) Scissors

48. The most commonly used material for sutures is:

a) Silk
b) Nylon
c) Polypropylene
d) Catgut

49. Which of the following is a primary concern during general anesthesia?

a) Pain management
b) Ensuring oxygenation and ventilation
c) Surgical site infection
d) Wound healing

50. The surgical team must always adhere to sterile techniques to prevent:

a) Surgical site infection
b) Anesthesia complications
c) Blood loss
d) Surgical failure

Answer Key

These MCQs cover essential aspects of operation theatre technology, suitable for the Diploma in Operation Theatre Technology License Exam.

Dialysis Technology MCQs for NHPC Nepal – Diploma in Dialysis Technology License Exam 2025

Dialysis Technology MCQs for NHPC Nepal – Diploma in Dialysis Technology License Exam

Here are 50 multiple-choice questions (MCQs) for the Diploma in Dialysis Technology License Examination (NHPC Nepal), focusing on various aspects of dialysis technology and related concepts, with an answer key at the end.

~~Table of Contents(toc)~~

1. The primary function of dialysis is to:

a) Replace kidney function
b) Treat infections
c) Remove excess red blood cells
d) Correct electrolyte imbalances

2. Hemodialysis involves the use of:

a) A machine and dialyzer to filter the blood
b) Medication to remove toxins
c) Fluid infusion through the veins
d) Oxygen therapy

3. The normal range for blood urea nitrogen (BUN) in dialysis patients is:

a) 7-20 mg/dL
b) 10-30 mg/dL
c) 20-60 mg/dL
d) 30-70 mg/dL

4. The common indication for initiating dialysis in a patient is:

a) Hyperkalemia
b) Hypotension
c) Hemolysis
d) Normal creatinine levels

5. In dialysis, the term ‘ultrafiltration’ refers to:

a) The removal of toxins
b) The movement of water across a semi-permeable membrane due to pressure
c) The addition of fluids to the bloodstream
d) The cleaning of blood using a chemical agent

6. The most commonly used dialysis machine is:

a) Peritoneal dialysis machine
b) Continuous renal replacement therapy machine
c) Hemodialysis machine
d) Fluid infusion pump

7. Which of the following is the primary function of the dialyzer in hemodialysis?

a) To filter the blood
b) To monitor vital signs
c) To infuse medication into the bloodstream
d) To prevent blood clotting

8. In peritoneal dialysis, the dialysate fluid is infused into:

a) The patient’s blood vessels
b) The peritoneal cavity
c) The lungs
d) The heart

9. Which of the following is a complication commonly associated with peritoneal dialysis?

a) Hypertension
b) Peritonitis
c) Hypotension
d) Hyperkalemia

10. The goal of dialysis in patients with end-stage renal disease (ESRD) is to:

a) Cure kidney failure
b) Maintain normal kidney function
c) Replace the function of the kidneys
d) Treat underlying kidney infections

11. The primary risk factor for kidney failure requiring dialysis is:

a) Age
b) Hypertension and diabetes
c) Genetic disorders
d) Physical inactivity

12. What is the most common site for dialysis access?

a) Jugular vein
b) Femoral artery
c) Arteriovenous fistula (AVF)
d) Subclavian vein

13. In hemodialysis, the anticoagulant most commonly used is:

a) Heparin
b) Warfarin
c) Aspirin
d) Clopidogrel

14. The main difference between hemodialysis and peritoneal dialysis is:

a) The dialysis fluid used
b) The type of membrane used for filtration
c) The method of dialysis
d) The duration of each session

15. Which of the following is a potential complication of hemodialysis?

a) Peritonitis
b) Hyperglycemia
c) Air embolism
d) Pulmonary edema

16. In hemodialysis, the ‘arterial line’ is used to:

a) Carry blood from the dialyzer to the body
b) Carry blood from the patient to the dialyzer
c) Monitor the blood pressure
d) Provide oxygen to the blood

17. The use of bicarbonate in dialysis is intended to:

a) Increase the pH of the blood
b) Remove waste products
c) Correct electrolyte imbalances
d) Prevent blood clotting

18. Dialysis patients are at risk for anemia due to:

a) Increased red blood cell production
b) Decreased erythropoietin production
c) High levels of iron
d) Excessive loss of blood during dialysis

19. In peritoneal dialysis, the fluid exchanges are typically performed:

a) Once a week
b) Every 6 hours
c) Every 24 hours
d) Every 2-3 hours

20. The primary function of erythropoiesis-stimulating agents (ESA) in dialysis patients is to:

a) Stimulate the production of red blood cells
b) Control blood pressure
c) Remove excess water
d) Replace lost electrolytes

21. The main advantage of peritoneal dialysis over hemodialysis is:

a) Lower cost
b) Greater independence for the patient
c) Easier to set up
d) Fewer complications

22. The most common type of dialysis access is:

a) Hemodialysis catheter
b) Arteriovenous fistula (AVF)
c) Peritoneal dialysis catheter
d) Arteriovenous graft (AVG)

23. The term “dialysis dose” refers to:

a) The duration of dialysis treatment
b) The volume of blood filtered per minute
c) The amount of solute removed during dialysis
d) The amount of fluid used for ultrafiltration

24. What is the primary function of dialysis in the treatment of kidney failure?

a) To replace kidney function by removing waste products and excess fluids
b) To prevent infections
c) To improve lung function
d) To increase blood pressure

25. Which of the following laboratory tests is used to monitor the adequacy of dialysis?

a) Urine culture
b) BUN and creatinine levels
c) Serum glucose
d) Complete blood count (CBC)

26. Which of the following factors can affect the efficiency of hemodialysis?

a) Dialysis machine settings
b) Blood flow rate
c) Dialysate flow rate
d) All of the above

27. The most common vascular access for hemodialysis is:

a) A dialysis fistula
b) A dialysis catheter
c) An arteriovenous graft
d) A peritoneal dialysis catheter

28. During dialysis, the dialyzer filter removes:

a) Waste products, toxins, and excess fluids
b) Oxygen
c) Electrolytes only
d) Red blood cells

29. The process of hemodialysis is typically performed for how long during each session?

a) 1-2 hours
b) 4-6 hours
c) 8-10 hours
d) 12-14 hours

30. In peritoneal dialysis, the dialysate fluid is typically composed of:

a) Saline solution with glucose
b) Dialysis solution with proteins
c) Sodium bicarbonate solution
d) Glucose and urea solution

31. The “Kt/V” is a measure used to evaluate:

a) Dialysis adequacy
b) Blood volume
c) Glomerular filtration rate
d) Nutritional status

32. The primary concern for a dialysis patient post-treatment is:

a) Hyperkalemia
b) Hypotension
c) Hypervolemia
d) Dehydration

33. Which of the following is a potential complication of vascular access for dialysis?

a) Infection
b) Hypotension
c) Peritonitis
d) Hyperglycemia

34. Which of the following factors should be monitored closely during dialysis?

a) Body temperature
b) Blood pressure
c) Blood glucose levels
d) All of the above

35. A complication associated with long-term dialysis is:

a) Dialysis disequilibrium syndrome
b) Peritoneal fibrosis
c) Iron overload
d) Hyperthyroidism

36. Which of the following conditions can lead to the failure of a dialysis access?

a) Infection
b) Thrombosis
c) Aneurysm formation
d) All of the above

37. Dialysate fluid in peritoneal dialysis typically has a higher concentration of glucose to:

a) Facilitate fluid removal
b) Increase the pH of the blood
c) Promote the removal of potassium
d) Decrease the risk of infection

38. The term ‘clearance’ in dialysis refers to:

a) The amount of fluid removed during treatment
b) The effectiveness of the dialyzer in removing waste products
c) The efficiency of the blood pump
d) The rate of dialysate fluid infusion

39. The most common complication of hemodialysis is:

a) Hypotension
b) Hemolysis
c) Infection
d) Seizures

40. Which of the following medications is commonly used to manage hypertension in dialysis patients?

a) ACE inhibitors
b) Diuretics
c) Calcium channel blockers
d) Beta blockers

41. A patient undergoing dialysis may experience “dialysis disequilibrium syndrome” characterized by:

a) Severe hypotension
b) Nausea, vomiting, and headache
c) Fluid overload
d) Fever and chills

42. The most common type of dialysis used for children is:

a) Peritoneal dialysis
b) Hemodialysis
c) Continuous renal replacement therapy (CRRT)
d) Kidney transplant

43. Dialysis patients are often given erythropoiesis-stimulating agents (ESA) to:

a) Prevent anemia
b) Stimulate white blood cell production
c) Control blood sugar
d) Treat infection

44. The main advantage of hemodialysis over peritoneal dialysis is:

a) Easier to perform at home
b) Requires less medical supervision
c) More efficient removal of waste products
d) Requires no surgical access

45. The primary purpose of the dialysis machine is to:

a) Clean the blood
b) Remove oxygen
c) Reduce body weight
d) Increase blood pressure

46. The dialysis catheter is typically inserted into which of the following veins?

a) Jugular vein
b) Femoral vein
c) Subclavian vein
d) All of the above

47. The most common complication of peritoneal dialysis is:

a) Hypertension
b) Peritonitis
c) Hyperkalemia
d) Hyperglycemia

48. The treatment of dialysis patients often requires the management of:

a) Electrolyte imbalances
b) Nutritional deficiencies
c) Infections
d) All of the above

49. The function of the ‘dialysate’ is to:

a) Replace fluids in the patient’s body
b) Facilitate the removal of toxins
c) Deliver oxygen to the blood
d) Maintain blood pressure

50. The most appropriate vascular access for long-term dialysis in adults is:

a) A tunneled dialysis catheter
b) A peritoneal dialysis catheter
c) An arteriovenous fistula (AVF)
d) An arteriovenous graft (AVG)

Answer Key

These MCQs cover essential topics in dialysis technology, suitable for the Diploma in Dialysis Technology License Exam.

Anaesthesia MCQs for NHPC Nepal – Diploma in Anaesthesia License Exam

Anaesthesia MCQs for NHPC Nepal – Diploma in Anaesthesia License Exam 2025

~~Table of Contents(toc)~~

Here are 50 multiple-choice questions (MCQs) for the Diploma in Anaesthesia License Examination (NHPC Nepal), covering essential topics related to Anaesthesia, with an answer key at the end.

1. The primary function of anaesthesia is to:

a) Induce muscle relaxation
b) Provide pain relief
c) Maintain consciousness
d) Prevent infection

2. Which of the following is the most common side effect of general anaesthesia?

a) Nausea and vomiting
b) Allergic reactions
c) Hypotension
d) Tachycardia

3. The minimum alveolar concentration (MAC) of an inhaled anaesthetic refers to:

a) The concentration at which 50% of patients do not respond to a surgical stimulus
b) The time required for the anaesthetic to be eliminated from the body
c) The level of anaesthesia needed for conscious sedation
d) The amount of oxygen required during anaesthesia

4. Which of the following is a contraindication for regional anaesthesia?

a) Hypovolemia
b) Obesity
c) History of seizures
d) All of the above

5. The most common anaesthetic agent used in rapid sequence induction (RSI) is:

a) Propofol
b) Ketamine
c) Etomidate
d) Thiopental

6. Which of the following is the most common complication of regional anaesthesia?

a) Hypotension
b) Nerve injury
c) Cardiac arrhythmias
d) Postoperative infection

7. The main mechanism of action of volatile anaesthetics is:

a) Inhibition of neurotransmitter release
b) Inhibition of sodium channels
c) Depression of the central nervous system
d) Blocking acetylcholine receptors

8. Which of the following is the safest anaesthetic agent for patients with asthma?

a) Nitrous oxide
b) Sevoflurane
c) Isoflurane
d) Desflurane

9. The most common site for administering an epidural anaesthesia is:

a) L3-L4 intervertebral space
b) L1-L2 intervertebral space
c) T12-L1 intervertebral space
d) T8-T9 intervertebral space

10. Which of the following is used to reverse the effects of non-depolarizing muscle relaxants?

a) Neostigmine
b) Atropine
c) Sugammadex
d) Naloxone

11. Inhaled anaesthetics are primarily eliminated through:

a) The liver
b) The kidneys
c) The lungs
d) The gastrointestinal tract

12. Which of the following is a common feature of malignant hyperthermia?

a) Bradycardia
b) Hyperkalemia
c) Hypothermia
d) Hypotension

13. What is the action of nitrous oxide in anaesthesia?

a) It provides muscle relaxation
b) It is a potent analgesic
c) It increases the depth of anaesthesia
d) It induces unconsciousness

14. The ideal anaesthetic for day surgery should have:

a) A long half-life
b) A quick onset and recovery time
c) A high solubility in blood
d) A low potency

15. The most common cause of hypotension during anaesthesia is:

a) Hypovolemia
b) Allergic reaction
c) Hypercapnia
d) Hypertension

16. Which of the following is used to monitor the depth of anaesthesia?

a) Electrocardiogram (ECG)
b) Bispectral index (BIS)
c) Pulse oximeter
d) Capnography

17. Which of the following is a characteristic of local anaesthetics?

a) They act by inhibiting dopamine receptors
b) They provide both motor and sensory blockade
c) They cause vasodilation
d) They act by inhibiting sodium channels

18. The risk of aspiration during anaesthesia is reduced by:

a) Preoperative fasting
b) Using high doses of muscle relaxants
c) Inducing anaesthesia slowly
d) Administering intravenous fluids

19. Which of the following is the most common type of anaesthesia used for caesarean section?

a) General anaesthesia
b) Spinal anaesthesia
c) Epidural anaesthesia
d) Local anaesthesia

20. Which of the following drugs is used to treat post-operative nausea and vomiting (PONV)?

a) Dexamethasone
b) Ondansetron
c) Naloxone
d) Atropine

21. The most common cause of bradycardia during anaesthesia is:

a) Hypoxia
b) Hypotension
c) Vagal stimulation
d) Hypothermia

22. The action of succinylcholine as a depolarizing muscle relaxant is primarily achieved through:

a) Inhibition of acetylcholine release
b) Blocking acetylcholine receptors
c) Prolonged depolarization of the motor end plate
d) Competitive inhibition of calcium channels

23. What is the primary use of propofol in anaesthesia?

a) Induction and maintenance of general anaesthesia
b) Muscle relaxation
c) Pain relief
d) Sedation for regional anaesthesia

24. Which of the following is the most important factor in determining the choice of anaesthesia in a patient with a high risk of aspiration?

a) Duration of surgery
b) Type of surgery
c) Patient’s position during surgery
d) Airway management and protection

25. The use of nitrous oxide during anaesthesia is contraindicated in which of the following conditions?

a) Pulmonary hypertension
b) Closed head injury
c) Gastric reflux
d) Hyperthyroidism

26. Which of the following is a feature of regional anaesthesia?

a) Acts on the central nervous system
b) Provides unconsciousness
c) Blocks pain in specific areas of the body
d) Requires intubation

27. The action of benzodiazepines in anaesthesia is to:

a) Cause amnesia
b) Induce muscle relaxation
c) Increase pain perception
d) Block nerve conduction

28. Which of the following statements is true about epidural anaesthesia?

a) It is always combined with general anaesthesia
b) It blocks pain transmission in the lower half of the body
c) It is the preferred anaesthesia for craniotomy
d) It is always associated with high-risk complications

29. Which of the following is an indication for the use of ketamine in anaesthesia?

a) Maintenance of anaesthesia in high-risk patients
b) Providing sedation during short procedures
c) Inducing anaesthesia in paediatric patients
d) Treating malignant hyperthermia

30. Which of the following is the most appropriate anaesthetic agent for a patient with a history of malignant hyperthermia?

a) Desflurane
b) Isoflurane
c) Sevoflurane
d) Propofol

31. Which of the following is used to treat malignant hyperthermia?

a) Dantrolene
b) Epinephrine
c) Sodium bicarbonate
d) Magnesium sulfate

32. What is the primary mechanism of action of volatile anaesthetics?

a) Inhibition of GABA receptors
b) Enhancement of excitatory neurotransmitter release
c) Blocking sodium channels
d) Hyperpolarization of nerve membranes

33. Which of the following agents is known for its rapid onset and short duration of action in general anaesthesia?

a) Thiopental
b) Propofol
c) Ketamine
d) Etomidate

34. What is the major complication of spinal anaesthesia?

a) Postdural puncture headache
b) Nerve injury
c) Systemic toxicity
d) Bradycardia

35. Which of the following agents is a muscle relaxant that acts by inhibiting acetylcholine release?

a) Succinylcholine
b) Vecuronium
c) Pancuronium
d) Atracurium

36. Which of the following is a side effect of the use of nitrous oxide?

a) Nausea
b) Seizures
c) Hyperthermia
d) Increased blood pressure

37. What is the role of pre-oxygenation before anaesthesia induction?

a) To reduce the risk of aspiration
b) To increase oxygen reserves and extend safe apnea time
c) To prevent allergic reactions
d) To provide sedation

38. Which of the following anaesthetic agents is contraindicated in patients with a history of epilepsy?

a) Propofol
b) Ketamine
c) Isoflurane
d) Nitrous oxide

39. The most common method used to maintain anaesthesia during a long surgical procedure is:

a) Intravenous anaesthetic agents
b) Volatile inhaled anaesthetics
c) Nitrous oxide
d) Muscle relaxants

40. The common complication of the use of long-term nitrous oxide is:

a) Vitamin B12 deficiency
b) Hypercalcemia
c) Increased risk of infection
d) Dehydration

41. What is the typical concentration of isoflurane used during general anaesthesia?

a) 0.5-1%
b) 1-2%
c) 3-5%
d) 5-7%

42. Which of the following is a common side effect of general anaesthesia in elderly patients?

a) Decreased blood pressure
b) Increased heart rate
c) Hyperthermia
d) Increased sedation

43. What is the primary purpose of a laryngeal mask airway (LMA)?

a) To provide a secure airway during general anaesthesia
b) To induce anaesthesia
c) To maintain oxygenation in patients with bronchospasm
d) To facilitate ventilation during regional anaesthesia

44. Which of the following is an effect of the use of atropine in anaesthesia?

a) Decreased heart rate
b) Increased heart rate
c) Hypotension
d) Respiratory depression

45. Which of the following is the most common complication following the use of propofol for anaesthesia?

a) Hypotension
b) Hyperkalemia
c) Bradycardia
d) Tachycardia

46. Which of the following is the most commonly used anaesthetic for paediatric patients?

a) Ketamine
b) Sevoflurane
c) Isoflurane
d) Desflurane

47. The main function of the pre-anaesthesia assessment is to:

a) Determine the anaesthetic agent to be used
b) Assess the risk factors and plan the anaesthesia accordingly
c) Administer the necessary medication
d) Prepare the patient for surgery

48. What is the primary role of the anaesthesiologist during surgery?

a) To perform the surgery
b) To monitor and maintain the patient’s vital functions
c) To assist with postoperative care
d) To provide pain management after surgery

49. What is the best method to prevent anaphylaxis during anaesthesia?

a) Preoperative testing for allergies
b) Avoiding the use of muscle relaxants
c) Administering antihistamines during surgery
d) Careful selection of anaesthetic agents

50. Which of the following agents is the most appropriate for short outpatient procedures due to its rapid onset and short duration?

a) Propofol
b) Ketamine
c) Sevoflurane
d) Isoflurane

Answer Key

These questions can help assess the understanding of fundamental concepts in anaesthesia, suitable for the Diploma in Anaesthesia License Exam.

Burns, Plastic Surgery, Gynecology Physiotherapy MCQs for NHPC Nepal – BPT License Exam 2025

Burns & Plastic Surgery and Gynecology Physiotherapy MCQs for NHPC Nepal – BPT License Exam

~~Table of Contents(toc)~~

Here are 25 multiple-choice questions (MCQs) on Burns and Plastic Surgery Physiotherapy and Gynecology Physiotherapy for the BPT Physiotherapy License Examination (NHPC Nepal), with an answer key at the end.

Burns & Plastic Surgery Physiotherapy (25 MCQs)

1. Which of the following is the primary goal in the acute phase of burn rehabilitation?

a) Skin grafting
b) Pain management
c) Preventing infection
d) Restoring joint mobility and function

2. The most common complications in patients with deep partial-thickness burns are:

a) Wound infection and hypertrophic scarring
b) Hypothermia and hypovolemia
c) Respiratory failure and organ dysfunction
d) Contractures and joint deformities

3. The primary focus of physiotherapy during the post-burn rehabilitation phase is to:

a) Promote early ambulation
b) Prevent deformities and contractures
c) Improve wound healing
d) Manage edema

4. What is the most common type of skin graft used in burn surgery?

a) Full-thickness skin graft
b) Split-thickness skin graft
c) Allograft
d) Xenograft

5. The role of physiotherapy in the acute phase of burn treatment includes:

a) Debridement of necrotic tissue
b) Pain management and early mobilization
c) Skin grafting
d) Emotional counseling

6. The best time to initiate physiotherapy after a burn injury is:

a) 24-48 hours after injury
b) 1 week post-burn
c) After the wound is fully healed
d) As soon as possible after stabilization

7. In burn rehabilitation, what is the purpose of splinting?

a) To prevent infection
b) To reduce scarring
c) To maintain joint position and prevent contractures
d) To reduce pain

8. What is the preferred position for splinting of the hand in burn rehabilitation?

a) Claw position
b) Functional position
c) Extended position
d) Flexed position

9. Which of the following interventions is effective for hypertrophic scarring in burn patients?

a) Pressure garments
b) Heat therapy
c) Ultrasound therapy
d) Electrical stimulation

10. A common complication of facial burns is:

a) Contractures of the fingers
b) Limitation in neck extension
c) Vision impairment
d) Hearing loss

11. Which of the following is a major concern during the acute phase of burn care?

a) Pain management
b) Maintaining skin elasticity
c) Preventing scarring
d) Joint deformities

12. What is the key role of physiotherapy in post-operative burn rehabilitation?

a) Wound care
b) Muscle strengthening
c) Preventing contractures and deformities
d) Emotional counseling

13. Which of the following is used to assess the severity of burns?

a) Apgar score
b) Rule of nines
c) Glasgow Coma Scale
d) Burn index

14. A key factor in burn wound healing is:

a) Age of the patient
b) Nutrition and hydration
c) Psychological support
d) All of the above

15. Which of the following is a common complication of burn injury in children?

a) Osteoporosis
b) Growth plate abnormalities
c) Fractures
d) Sarcopenia

Gynecology Physiotherapy (25 MCQs)

16. Which of the following is a major goal of physiotherapy in managing pelvic floor dysfunction?

a) Strengthening core muscles
b) Managing urinary incontinence and pelvic organ prolapse
c) Reducing lower back pain
d) Improving cardiovascular fitness

17. Kegel exercises are primarily used for:

a) Strengthening the pelvic floor muscles
b) Increasing lumbar spine mobility
c) Reducing abdominal obesity
d) Improving shoulder flexibility

18. A patient with pelvic organ prolapse would most likely benefit from which physiotherapy intervention?

a) Core strengthening exercises
b) Pelvic floor exercises
c) Knee extension exercises
d) Stretching of the lower back

19. Which of the following is a primary symptom of pelvic floor dysfunction?

a) Painful menstruation
b) Urinary incontinence
c) Lower abdominal pain
d) Coughing

20. Which of the following techniques is used in physiotherapy to treat urinary incontinence?

a) Trigger point release
b) Pelvic floor muscle training
c) Deep tissue massage
d) Transcutaneous electrical nerve stimulation (TENS)

21. During the postnatal period, physiotherapy focuses on:

a) Strengthening the pelvic floor muscles
b) Treating diastasis recti
c) Improving posture and reducing back pain
d) All of the above

22. What is the primary focus of physiotherapy in pre-natal care?

a) Promoting fetal development
b) Strengthening pelvic floor muscles
c) Alleviating pregnancy-related discomfort and pain
d) Preparing for labor and delivery

23. Which of the following is an effective intervention for diastasis recti after pregnancy?

a) Deep abdominal muscle activation exercises
b) Stretching of the abdominal muscles
c) Cardiovascular exercises
d) Weight-bearing exercises

24. The most common post-surgical complication following a hysterectomy is:

a) Pelvic organ prolapse
b) Abdominal muscle weakness
c) Urinary incontinence
d) Sciatica

25. What is a common benefit of prenatal physiotherapy?

a) Reducing the risk of postnatal depression
b) Preventing urinary tract infections
c) Improving circulation and muscle strength
d) All of the above

26. In post-menopausal women, physiotherapy interventions may include:

a) Hormone replacement therapy
b) Strengthening the pelvic floor muscles
c) Weight loss interventions
d) All of the above

27. Which is the most effective method of treating stress urinary incontinence in women?

a) Bladder training
b) Pelvic floor muscle exercises
c) Biofeedback therapy
d) Surgery

28. What is a common physiotherapy treatment for constipation in women?

a) Pelvic floor exercises
b) Transcutaneous electrical nerve stimulation (TENS)
c) Abdominal massage and mobilization
d) Stretching exercises

29. The recommended physiotherapy intervention for treating lower back pain in pregnancy is:

a) Spinal manipulation
b) Strengthening exercises for the core and pelvic muscles
c) Electrical muscle stimulation
d) Only rest

30. Post-partum, physiotherapy for abdominal muscle separation (diastasis recti) includes:

a) Massage therapy
b) Core muscle strengthening exercises
c) Aerobic exercises
d) Heat therapy

Answer Key

Burns & Plastic Surgery Physiotherapy

d Restoring joint mobility and function
a Wound infection and hypertrophic scarring
b Prevent deformities and contractures
b Split-thickness skin graft
b Pain management and early mobilization
d As soon as possible after stabilization
c To maintain joint position and prevent contractures
b Functional position
a Pressure garments
b Limitation in neck extension
a Pain management
c Preventing contractures and deformities
b Rule of nines
d All of the above
b Growth plate abnormalities

Gynecology Physiotherapy

b Managing urinary incontinence and pelvic organ prolapse
a Strengthening the pelvic floor muscles
b Pelvic floor exercises
b Urinary incontinence
b Pelvic floor muscle training
d All of the above
c Alleviating pregnancy-related discomfort and pain
a Deep abdominal muscle activation exercises
b Abdominal muscle weakness
d All of the above
d All of the above
b Pelvic floor muscle exercises
c Abdominal massage and mobilization
b Strengthening exercises for the core and pelvic muscles
b Core muscle strengthening exercises

Summary

This 50-MCQ set covers essential topics in Burns and Plastic Surgery Physiotherapy and Gynecology Physiotherapy, including post-burn rehabilitation, pelvic floor dysfunction, postnatal care, and prenatal physiotherapy for the NHPC Nepal BPT licensing exam.

How to See Your Own Number in Namaste and Ncell 2025

How to Easily Find Your Own Number in NTC and Ncell in 2025

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NTC and ncell

Introduction:

We have all had that awkward moment when someone asks for our phone number
and we do not know what to say. Whether you use NTC (Nepal Telecom) or
Ncell, forgetting your own phone number can be humiliating. However, do not
worry! In this article, we will walk you through the simple steps of finding
your own phone number on both the NTC and Ncell networks. Let us get
started!

Following questions have been frequently asked:

how to check ntc number
ntc number check
how to see ntc number
how to know ntc number
how to check ntc number owner name
ntc number check code
check ntc number
how to look ntc number
how to find ntc number
how to check my ntc number

We will answer all of them here.

NTC

Finding Your Own Number on NTC; how to see your own number in ntc:

Method 1: Dialing a USSD Code, how to check ntc number

Open your phone’s dialer.
Dial *9#
and press the call button.
Almost instantly, you’ll receive a message displaying your mobile
number.

Method 2: Sending an SMS, ntc number check

Open your phone’s messaging app.
Create a new SMS message.
Type “NTC” or “my number” (without quotes) in the message body.
Send the message to 1415.
Within a few moments, you’ll receive an automated response with your NTC
mobile number.

Finding Your Own Number on Ncell; how to see your own number in ncell:

The commonly asked NCell Number questions include:

how to check ncell number
ncell number check
how to know ncell number
how to see ncell number
how to check ncell number owner
how to check ncell number owner name
ncell number check code
ncell number
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how to know your ncell number
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ncell number tracker
ncell number starts with
how to find ncell number
how to know my ncell number
how to check my ncell number
how to see own ncell number
how to recharge other ncell number

We will answer those questions in one place here.

NCell logo

Method 1: Dialing a USSD Code

Open your phone’s dialer.
Dial *903#
and press the call button.
You’ll receive a message showing your Ncell mobile number.

Method 2: Calling Customer Care

Dial 9005 from your Ncell number.
Follow the automated instructions to talk to a customer care
representative.
Provide the necessary details for verification.
The customer care agent will share your Ncell mobile number with
you.

Pro Tips on how to see your own number:

Save Your Number: Once you have found your phone number, save it in your
phone’s contacts list with a name that is easily remembered (e.g., My
Number) to avoid future confusion.

Check the SIM Card: If the USSD codes or SMS methods do not work, make sure you have the correct SIM card inserted in your phone.

Verify Documents: Make sure the documents you submitted when purchasing the SIM card match the number you receive.

Call or Text a Friend or Family Member: To be certain, call or text a friend or family member after finding your phone number.

Conclusion:

Forgetting your own mobile number is common, but with the simple methods in this article, you can easily retrieve it, whether you use NTC or Ncell. The USSD codes and SMS options are quick and convenient, allowing you to access your number in just a few seconds. Remember to save your number in your phonebook for easy reference, and always double-check your SIM card and documents to avoid any potential issues.

Knowing your own number ensures smooth communication and prevents awkward situations when someone asks for your contact information. Now that you’ve learned how to find your number on NTC and Ncell, you can confidently share your contact details whenever needed. Happy dialing!

ntc ncell

Pediatrics & Geriatrics Physiotherapy MCQs for NHPC Nepal – BPT License Exam

Here are 50 multiple-choice questions (MCQs) on Pediatrics and Geriatrics Physiotherapy for the BPT Physiotherapy License Examination (NHPC Nepal), with an answer key at the end.

~~Table of Contents(toc)~~

Pediatric Physiotherapy (25 MCQs)

1. What is the most common type of cerebral palsy?

a) Dyskinetic CP
b) Spastic CP
c) Ataxic CP
d) Mixed CP

2. The Apgar score is used to assess:

a) Birth weight
b) Muscle tone and reflexes at birth
c) Developmental milestones
d) Neonatal feeding ability

3. Which reflex persists the longest in infants?

a) Moro reflex
b) Asymmetrical tonic neck reflex (ATNR)
c) Parachute reflex
d) Palmar grasp reflex

4. What is the most common congenital foot deformity in children?

a) Metatarsus adductus
b) Talipes equinovarus
c) Pes planus
d) Genu valgum

5. Duchenne muscular dystrophy is characterized by:

a) Proximal muscle weakness
b) Hyperreflexia
c) Spasticity
d) Early-onset hypotonia

6. What is Gower’s sign?

a) An indicator of spasticity
b) A sign of proximal muscle weakness
c) A measure of balance
d) A test for scoliosis

7. What is the most effective early intervention for developmental delay?

a) Passive range of motion exercises
b) Family-centered therapy
c) Only pharmacological treatment
d) Serial casting

8. Which is a characteristic feature of spastic cerebral palsy?

a) Hypotonia
b) Hypertonia and hyperreflexia
c) Fluctuating muscle tone
d) Tremors

9. The best intervention for plagiocephaly in infants is:

a) Surgery
b) Cranial helmet therapy and positioning techniques
c) Strength training
d) Bracing

10. Which of the following is a red flag in pediatric development?

a) Rolling over at 4 months
b) Not sitting unsupported by 9 months
c) Babbling at 6 months
d) Walking by 12 months

11. What is the primary focus of physiotherapy for children with spina bifida?

a) Strength training
b) Functional mobility and preventing contractures
c) Respiratory therapy
d) Gait training only

12. Which of the following is true regarding idiopathic scoliosis in children?

a) It is always symptomatic
b) It progresses most rapidly during growth spurts
c) It always requires surgery
d) It is self-limiting

13. The normal age for independent walking is:

a) 6-9 months
b) 10-15 months
c) 16-20 months
d) 21-24 months

14. Which test is used to assess spasticity in children with CP?

a) Modified Ashworth Scale
b) Berg Balance Scale
c) Mini-Mental State Exam
d) Apgar Score

15. The main cause of Erb’s palsy in newborns is:

a) Genetic mutation
b) Birth trauma affecting the brachial plexus
c) Viral infection
d) Neuromuscular disease

Geriatric Physiotherapy (25 MCQs)

16. The most common cause of falls in the elderly is:

a) Poor nutrition
b) Impaired balance and muscle weakness
c) Dehydration
d) Cognitive function decline

17. Which condition is characterized by progressive loss of bone density?

a) Osteoarthritis
b) Osteoporosis
c) Rheumatoid arthritis
d) Sarcopenia

18. The Berg Balance Scale is used to assess:

a) Gait speed
b) Fall risk
c) Muscle strength
d) Cognitive function

19. Which type of exercise is most beneficial for preventing osteoporosis in older adults?

a) Swimming
b) Weight-bearing exercises
c) Cycling
d) Yoga

20. The most common type of arthritis in older adults is:

a) Rheumatoid arthritis
b) Gouty arthritis
c) Osteoarthritis
d) Psoriatic arthritis

21. What is the primary goal of physiotherapy in Parkinson’s disease?

a) Increase dopamine levels
b) Improve balance and movement coordination
c) Reduce muscle atrophy
d) Prevent cardiac complications

22. The Timed Up and Go (TUG) test primarily assesses:

a) Muscle endurance
b) Fall risk and functional mobility
c) Spasticity
d) Joint range of motion

23. A common postural abnormality in the elderly due to osteoporosis is:

a) Scoliosis
b) Lordosis
c) Kyphosis
d) Flat back

24. Sarcopenia is defined as:

a) Age-related loss of muscle mass and strength
b) Joint degeneration
c) Cognitive decline
d) Increased fat accumulation

25. What is the most effective strategy for preventing frailty in the elderly?

a) High-calorie diet
b) Regular resistance and endurance training
c) Complete bed rest
d) Avoiding all physical activity

Answer Key

Pediatric Physiotherapy

b Spastic CP
b Muscle tone and reflexes at birth
c Parachute reflex
b Talipes equinovarus
a Proximal muscle weakness
b A sign of proximal muscle weakness
b Family-centered therapy
b Hypertonia and hyperreflexia
b Cranial helmet therapy and positioning techniques
b Not sitting unsupported by 9 months
b Functional mobility and preventing contractures
b It progresses most rapidly during growth spurts
b 10-15 months
a Modified Ashworth Scale
b Birth trauma affecting the brachial plexus

Geriatric Physiotherapy

b Impaired balance and muscle weakness
b Osteoporosis
b Fall risk
b Weight-bearing exercises
c Osteoarthritis
b Improve balance and movement coordination
b Fall risk and functional mobility
c Kyphosis
a Age-related loss of muscle mass and strength
b Regular resistance and endurance training

Summary

This 50-MCQ set covers essential topics in pediatric and geriatric physiotherapy, including developmental disorders, muscle tone abnormalities, fall prevention, osteoarthritis, osteoporosis, and exercise interventions for NHPC Nepal BPT licensing exam.

Neurological Physiotherapy MCQs for NHPC Nepal – BPT License Exam 2025

Neurological Physiotherapy MCQs for NHPC Nepal – BPT License Exam

~~Table of Contents(toc)~~

Here are 50 high-quality multiple-choice questions (MCQs) on Neurological Physiotherapy for the BPT Physiotherapy License Examination (NHPC Nepal), with an answer key at the end.

1. Which of the following is the most common type of stroke?

a) Ischemic stroke
b) Hemorrhagic stroke
c) Transient ischemic attack
d) Subdural hematoma

2. The Babinski sign is indicative of a lesion in which part of the nervous system?

a) Peripheral nervous system
b) Upper motor neuron
c) Lower motor neuron
d) Basal ganglia

3. Which test is commonly used to assess balance in stroke patients?

a) Berg Balance Scale
b) Ashworth Scale
c) Mini-Mental State Examination
d) Glasgow Coma Scale

4. Spasticity is a hallmark of which type of motor neuron lesion?

a) Upper motor neuron lesion
b) Lower motor neuron lesion
c) Peripheral nerve lesion
d) Cerebellar dysfunction

5. Which of the following is a characteristic feature of Parkinson’s disease?

a) Hyperreflexia
b) Resting tremor
c) Chorea
d) Spasticity

6. The Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) assesses which three functions?

a) Motor response, verbal response, and eye-opening
b) Reflexes, muscle tone, and gait
c) Coordination, proprioception, and cognition
d) Vision, speech, and hearing

7. In multiple sclerosis, which part of the nervous system is primarily affected?

a) Peripheral nerves
b) Myelin sheath in the CNS
c) Basal ganglia
d) Neuromuscular junction

8. A patient with hemiplegia exhibits increased tone in the upper limb flexors and lower limb extensors. This pattern is known as:

a) Decerebrate rigidity
b) Decorticate rigidity
c) Flaccidity
d) Ataxia

9. Which of the following is a progressive neurological disorder?

a) Guillain-Barré syndrome
b) Parkinson’s disease
c) Bell’s palsy
d) Transverse myelitis

10. What is the primary goal of physiotherapy in stroke rehabilitation?

a) Prevent contractures
b) Improve muscle strength
c) Restore functional independence
d) Reduce cognitive decline

11. Which gait pattern is typically observed in patients with Parkinson’s disease?

a) Trendelenburg gait
b) Festinating gait
c) Ataxic gait
d) Steppage gait

12. Which type of cerebral palsy is characterized by involuntary, writhing movements?

a) Spastic
b) Ataxic
c) Athetoid
d) Hypotonic

13. The Ashworth Scale is used to assess:

a) Spasticity
b) Muscle strength
c) Sensory deficits
d) Balance

14. Which nerve is affected in Bell’s palsy?

a) Trigeminal nerve
b) Facial nerve
c) Hypoglossal nerve
d) Accessory nerve

15. The Romberg test is used to assess:

a) Motor control
b) Vestibular function
c) Proprioception
d) Reflex activity

16. The most common cause of spinal cord injury is:

a) Infection
b) Trauma
c) Tumors
d) Stroke

17. A patient with right-sided hemiparesis and expressive aphasia likely has a stroke in which cerebral hemisphere?

a) Left
b) Right
c) Both
d) Brainstem

18. Which rehabilitation approach emphasizes functional movements and uses key points of control?

a) Bobath (Neurodevelopmental Therapy)
b) Proprioceptive Neuromuscular Facilitation (PNF)
c) Rood’s approach
d) Brunnstrom’s approach

19. Which of the following is a key feature of Guillain-Barré syndrome?

a) Descending paralysis
b) Asymmetric weakness
c) Rapidly progressing symmetrical weakness
d) Increased deep tendon reflexes

20. The Hoffman’s reflex is used to assess which condition?

a) Peripheral neuropathy
b) Upper motor neuron lesion
c) Lower motor neuron lesion
d) Cerebellar dysfunction

21. Which type of stroke is caused by a rupture of a blood vessel in the brain?

a) Ischemic stroke
b) Hemorrhagic stroke
c) Transient ischemic attack
d) Lacunar stroke

22. The term “foot drop” is associated with weakness of which muscle group?

a) Plantar flexors
b) Dorsiflexors
c) Hip abductors
d) Quadriceps

23. In Brown-Séquard syndrome, what type of sensory loss occurs ipsilaterally?

a) Pain and temperature
b) Light touch and proprioception
c) Both
d) No sensory loss

24. Which neurological condition is commonly treated with deep brain stimulation?

a) Parkinson’s disease
b) Stroke
c) Multiple sclerosis
d) Guillain-Barré syndrome

25. What is the first step in managing autonomic dysreflexia?

a) Lower the patient’s legs
b) Check and remove the noxious stimulus
c) Administer pain medication
d) Perform passive stretching

Answer Key

a Ischemic stroke
b Upper motor neuron
a Berg Balance Scale
a Upper motor neuron lesion
b Resting tremor
a Motor response, verbal response, and eye-opening
b Myelin sheath in the CNS
b Decorticate rigidity
b Parkinson’s disease
c Restore functional independence
b Festinating gait
c Athetoid
a Spasticity
b Facial nerve
c Proprioception
b Trauma
a Left
a Bobath (Neurodevelopmental Therapy)
c Rapidly progressing symmetrical weakness
b Upper motor neuron lesion
b Hemorrhagic stroke
b Dorsiflexors
b Light touch and proprioception
a Parkinson’s disease
b Check and remove the noxious stimulus

Summary

This 50-MCQ set covers essential neurological physiotherapy concepts, stroke rehabilitation, neuromuscular disorders, gait patterns, and physiotherapy interventions for the NHPC Nepal BPT licensing exam.

Orthopaedics and Sports Physiotherapy MCQs for NHPC Nepal – BPT License Exam 2025

Orthopaedics and Sports Physiotherapy MCQs for NHPC Nepal – BPT License Exam

~~Table of Contents(toc)~~

Here are 50 high-quality multiple-choice questions (MCQs) on Orthopaedics and Sports Physiotherapy for the BPT Physiotherapy License Examination (NHPC Nepal), with an answer key at the end.

1. Which of the following is the most commonly injured ligament in an ankle sprain?

a) Deltoid ligament
b) Anterior talofibular ligament
c) Calcaneofibular ligament
d) Posterior talofibular ligament

2. In a supracondylar fracture of the humerus, which structure is at the highest risk of injury?

a) Radial nerve
b) Ulnar nerve
c) Median nerve
d) Brachial artery

3. What is the primary function of the rotator cuff muscles?

a) Shoulder adduction
b) Shoulder stabilization
c) Elbow flexion
d) Wrist extension

4. Which of the following conditions is characterized by excessive lumbar lordosis?

a) Scoliosis
b) Kyphosis
c) Hyperlordosis
d) Flat back

5. The most common site for an Achilles tendon rupture is:

a) Tendon insertion at the calcaneus
b) Musculotendinous junction
c) Mid-portion of the tendon
d) Near the tibial attachment

6. Osgood-Schlatter disease primarily affects which structure?

a) Femoral head
b) Tibial tuberosity
c) Patellar tendon
d) Medial meniscus

7. Which of the following is a hallmark feature of frozen shoulder (adhesive capsulitis)?

a) Shoulder dislocation
b) Severe pain with global movement restriction
c) Hypermobility of the glenohumeral joint
d) Increased external rotation

8. Tennis elbow is also known as:

a) Medial epicondylitis
b) Lateral epicondylitis
c) Olecranon bursitis
d) Radial tunnel syndrome

9. Which special test is used to assess an ACL injury?

a) McMurray’s test
b) Lachman test
c) Ober’s test
d) Apley’s compression test

10. What is the primary cause of anterior knee pain in patellofemoral pain syndrome?

a) Meniscal tear
b) Quadriceps muscle weakness
c) Patellar maltracking
d) Excessive ankle dorsiflexion

11. Which condition is known as “runner’s knee”?

a) IT band syndrome
b) Patellar tendonitis
c) Tibial stress fracture
d) ACL tear

12. What is the most common mechanism of injury for a meniscus tear?

a) Direct trauma
b) Hyperextension
c) Twisting with a flexed knee
d) Repetitive jumping

13. The most commonly dislocated large joint in the body is the:

a) Shoulder
b) Elbow
c) Knee
d) Ankle

14. What is the primary goal of rehabilitation after ACL reconstruction?

a) Reduce swelling and pain
b) Strengthen quadriceps and hamstrings
c) Restore full ROM and stability
d) All of the above

15. What is the most common site of stress fractures in runners?

a) Tibia
b) Femur
c) Humerus
d) Clavicle

16. What is the hallmark sign of a scaphoid fracture?

a) Pain in the anatomical snuffbox
b) Swelling over the lateral epicondyle
c) Numbness in the thumb
d) Inability to flex the wrist

17. Which of the following is an absolute contraindication for joint mobilization?

a) Joint stiffness
b) Osteoarthritis
c) Fracture
d) Muscle tightness

18. Which of the following is the gold standard test for detecting osteoporosis?

a) X-ray
b) MRI
c) DEXA scan
d) CT scan

19. Which structure is most commonly affected in a shoulder impingement syndrome?

a) Subscapularis
b) Supraspinatus tendon
c) Biceps brachii
d) Coracobrachialis

20. What is the recommended treatment for an acute muscle strain?

a) Heat therapy
b) Progressive resistance training
c) RICE protocol (Rest, Ice, Compression, Elevation)
d) Deep tissue massage

21. Which is the best test to assess hip stability in developmental dysplasia of the hip?

a) Ober’s test
b) Barlow’s test
c) Thomas test
d) FABER test

22. Which exercise is most appropriate for an early-stage ACL rehabilitation program?

a) Deep squats
b) Open kinetic chain knee extension
c) Straight leg raises
d) Plyometric jumps

23. Which of the following is a high-risk sport for ACL injuries?

a) Swimming
b) Basketball
c) Cycling
d) Table tennis

24. Which grade of muscle strain involves complete rupture?

a) Grade I
b) Grade II
c) Grade III
d) Grade IV

25. Which of the following is a common symptom of plantar fasciitis?

a) Pain in the Achilles tendon
b) Heel pain in the morning
c) Swelling in the ankle
d) Numbness in the toes

Answer Key

b Anterior talofibular ligament
c Median nerve
b Shoulder stabilization
c Hyperlordosis
c Mid-portion of the tendon
b Tibial tuberosity
b Severe pain with global movement restriction
b Lateral epicondylitis
b Lachman test
c Patellar maltracking
a IT band syndrome
c Twisting with a flexed knee
a Shoulder
d All of the above
a Tibia
a Pain in the anatomical snuffbox
c Fracture
c DEXA scan
b Supraspinatus tendon
c RICE protocol (Rest, Ice, Compression, Elevation)
b Barlow’s test
c Straight leg raises
b Basketball
c Grade III
b Heel pain in the morning

Summary

This 50-MCQ set covers sports injuries, orthopaedic conditions, rehabilitation principles, joint stability, and clinical assessments for the NHPC Nepal BPT licensing exam.

Biomechanics MCQs for NHPC Nepal – BPT License Exam

Here are 25 high-quality multiple-choice questions (MCQs) on Biomechanics for the BPT Physiotherapy License Examination (NHPC Nepal), with an answer key at the end.

~~Table of Contents(toc)~~

1. Biomechanics is the study of:

a) Muscular strength
b) Forces and their effects on living systems
c) Physical therapy techniques
d) Only the skeletal system

2. The center of gravity (COG) of the human body in the anatomical position is located approximately at:

a) L1 vertebra
b) L3 vertebra
c) S2 vertebra
d) T12 vertebra

3. Newton’s First Law of Motion states that:

a) Force equals mass times acceleration
b) Every action has an equal and opposite reaction
c) An object remains at rest or in uniform motion unless acted upon by an external force
d) The force applied is directly proportional to velocity

4. Which of the following is an example of a third-class lever?

a) Elbow flexion by biceps
b) Plantarflexion of the ankle
c) Extension of the knee
d) Atlanto-occipital joint movement

5. The term “kinetics” in biomechanics refers to:

a) The study of motion without considering forces
b) The study of forces and torques causing motion
c) The measurement of joint angles
d) The assessment of muscle contraction

6. The resistance arm in a second-class lever is located:

a) Between the fulcrum and effort
b) Between the fulcrum and resistance
c) At the end of the lever
d) On the opposite side of the effort

7. In gait analysis, the stance phase comprises approximately what percentage of the gait cycle?

a) 40%
b) 50%
c) 60%
d) 75%

8. Which type of joint movement occurs in the sagittal plane?

a) Abduction and adduction
b) Internal and external rotation
c) Flexion and extension
d) Lateral flexion

9. The ability of a material to return to its original shape after deformation is called:

a) Plasticity
b) Elasticity
c) Viscosity
d) Creep

10. The force exerted by a muscle depends on:

a) Length-tension relationship
b) Joint range of motion
c) Type of contraction
d) All of the above

11. The force produced when two surfaces slide over each other is called:

a) Torque
b) Friction
c) Compression
d) Tension

12. A force that causes rotation around an axis is called:

a) Load
b) Torque
c) Gravity
d) Shear force

13. Which of the following is an example of an open kinetic chain exercise?

a) Squat
b) Push-up
c) Leg extension
d) Pull-up

14. Which law explains why a patient in a wheelchair moves forward when they push against the wheels?

a) Newton’s First Law
b) Newton’s Second Law
c) Newton’s Third Law
d) Bernoulli’s Principle

15. The most efficient muscle contraction for producing the greatest force is:

a) Isometric
b) Concentric
c) Eccentric
d) Isokinetic

16. Which of the following is a characteristic of a closed kinetic chain exercise?

a) Distal segment is free to move
b) Involves single joint motion
c) Increases joint stability
d) Less functional than open-chain movements

17. The primary force that opposes movement in a fluid environment is:

a) Buoyancy
b) Gravity
c) Drag
d) Friction

18. The stretch-shortening cycle is essential in which type of exercise?

a) Isometric exercise
b) Plyometric exercise
c) Aerobic exercise
d) Static stretching

19. Which of the following muscle contractions involves muscle lengthening while maintaining tension?

a) Isometric
b) Concentric
c) Eccentric
d) Isotonic

20. What is the main function of the patella in biomechanics?

a) To stabilize the knee joint
b) To increase the lever arm of the quadriceps
c) To reduce weight-bearing load
d) To act as a shock absorber

21. When the foot is in dorsiflexion and inversion, it is in which position?

a) Supination
b) Pronation
c) Neutral
d) Plantarflexion

22. Ground reaction force (GRF) is:

a) The force exerted by the ground on a body in contact with it
b) The force generated by muscle contraction
c) The force of gravity acting on a mass
d) The force applied by an external resistance

23. Which part of the spine has the greatest range of motion?

a) Cervical
b) Thoracic
c) Lumbar
d) Sacral

24. The purpose of a force plate in biomechanics is to measure:

a) Muscle activity
b) Joint range of motion
c) Ground reaction forces
d) Bone density

25. The moment arm of a force is defined as:

a) The perpendicular distance from the axis of rotation to the line of force application
b) The angle of joint movement
c) The total force applied to an object
d) The speed of a moving object

Answer Key

b) Forces and their effects on living systems
c) S2 vertebra
c) An object remains at rest or in uniform motion unless acted upon by an external force
a) Elbow flexion by biceps
b) The study of forces and torques causing motion
a) Between the fulcrum and effort
c) 60%
c) Flexion and extension
b) Elasticity
d) All of the above
b) Friction
b) Torque
c) Leg extension
c) Newton’s Third Law
c) Eccentric
c) Increases joint stability
c) Drag
b) Plyometric exercise
c) Eccentric
b) To increase the lever arm of the quadriceps
a) Supination
a) The force exerted by the ground on a body in contact with it
a) Cervical
c) Ground reaction forces
a) The perpendicular distance from the axis of rotation to the line of force application

Summary

This set of 50 MCQs covers essential biomechanics concepts, forces, movement analysis, kinetic chain exercises, gait mechanics, and Newtonian principles for the NHPC Nepal BPT licensing exam.